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Comparing 2012 Amateur Extra class pool with 2008 Amateur Extra class pool
  • Removed questions: 101
  • New questions: 63
  • Updated questions: 106
  • Previous Total questions: 736
  • Total questions: 700
Subelement E1
COMMISSIONSCOMMISSION'S RULES
  • Removed questions: 23
  • New questions: 14
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 73
Section E1A
Operating Standards: frequency privileges for Extra Class amateurs; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; FCC license actions; stations aboard ships or aircraft
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
Which is the only amateur band that does not permit the transmission of phone or image emissions?
  • 160 meters
  • 60 meters
  • 30 meters
  • 17 meters
REMOVED
What is the only emission type permitted to be transmitted on the 60 meter band by an amateur station?
  • CW
  • RTTY Frequency shift keying
  • Single sideband, upper sideband only
  • Single sideband, lower sideband only
REMOVED
Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized only to control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license?
  • 80/75, 40, 20 and 15 meters
  • 80/75, 40, 20, and 10 meters
  • 80/75, 40, 30 and 10 meters
  • 160, 80/75, 40 and 20 meters
REMOVED
When a US-registered vessel is in international waters, what type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from an on-board amateur transmitter?
  • Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
  • Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee
  • Only General class or higher amateur licenses
  • An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies willrepresents resultthe inhighest frequency at which a normalproperly adjusted USB emission beingwill be totally within the band?
  • The exact upper band edge
  • 300 Hz below the upper band edge
  • 1 kHz below the upper band edge
  • 3 kHz below the upper band edge
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies willrepresents resultthe inlowest frequency at which a normalproperly adjusted LSB emission beingwill be totally within the band?
  • The exact lower band edge
  • 300 Hz above the lower band edge
  • 1 kHz above the lower band edge
  • 3 kHz above the lower band edge
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
  • Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
  • Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
  • No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
  • No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
  • Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
  • Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
  • No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
  • No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
was E1A06
What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
  • 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
  • 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
  • 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to anthe isotropicgain radiatorof a half-wave dipole
  • 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to aan dipoleisotropic radiator
- NEW -
Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
  • Working DX is not permitted
  • Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
  • Operation is restricted to LSB
  • All of these choices are correct
What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted?
  • 12 meter band
  • 17 meter band
  • 30 meter band
  • 60 meter band
was E1A10
If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
  • The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
  • The control operator of the originating station
  • The control operators of all the stations in the system
  • The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
was E1A11
What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
  • Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
  • Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
  • Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer’'s office
  • Discontinue forwarding all messages
was E1A12
If an amateur station is installed onaboard board a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
  • Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
  • The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use
  • It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
  • Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
- NEW -
What authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?
  • Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
  • Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
  • Only General class or higher amateur licenses
  • An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
- NEW -
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?
  • Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
  • Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
  • No, sidebands from the CW signal will be out of the band.
  • No, USA stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz
- NEW -
Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
  • Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
  • Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
  • Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
  • Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
Section E1B
Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions,; spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations
  • Removed questions: 6
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What height restrictions apply to an amateur station antenna structure not close to a public use airport unless the FAA is notified and it is registered with the FCC?
  • It must not extend more than 300 feet above average height of terrain surrounding the site
  • It must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site
  • There are no height restrictions because the structure obviously would not be a hazard to aircraft in flight
  • It must not extend more than 100 feet above sea level or the rim of the nearest valley or canyon
REMOVED
Whose approval is required before erecting an amateur station antenna located at or near a public use airport if the antenna would exceed a certain height depending upon the antenna’s distance from the nearest active runway?
  • The FAA must be notified and it must be registered with the FCC
  • Approval must be obtained from the airport manager
  • Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities
  • The FAA must approve any antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet
REMOVED
On what frequencies may the operation of an amateur station be restricted if its emissions cause interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station on a receiver of good engineering design?
  • On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station
  • On all frequencies below 30 MHz
  • On all frequencies above 30 MHz
  • On the interfering amateur service transmitting frequencies
REMOVED
What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?
  • A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services
  • A radio service of amateur stations for civil defense communications during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies
  • A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the public during periods of local, regional or national civil emergencies
  • A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio operators for civil emergency communications
REMOVED
What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force?
  • All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator
  • Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214
  • Specific local government channels
  • Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
REMOVED
What communications are permissible in RACES?
  • Any type of communications when there is no emergency
  • Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications
  • Authorized civil defense emergency communications affecting the immediate safety of life and property
  • National defense and security communications authorized by the President
Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
  • An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
  • A signal transmitted into aprevent way that prevents its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
  • Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
  • An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
  • The location is in or near an area of political conflict, military maneuvers or major construction
  • The location's is of geographical or horticultural importance
  • The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
  • The location is significantof toenvironmental ourimportance environment,or significant in American history, architecture, or culture.
Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
  • 1 mile
  • 3 miles
  • 10 miles
  • 30 miles
What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
  • A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
  • A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
  • An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
  • A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
- NEW -
What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
  • 60 Hz
  • 170 Hz
  • 1.5 kHz
  • 2.8 kHz
Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site withinat 20,000or feetnear of a public use airport?
  • You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
  • No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
  • You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
  • You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
- NEW -
Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
  • At the lowest frequency of the channel
  • At the center frequency of the channel
  • At the highest frequency of the channel
  • On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
- NEW -
What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?
  • The amateur station must cease operation
  • The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
  • The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
  • The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
was E1B10
Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
  • Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
was E1B11
What frequencies are normally authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
  • All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator
  • Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
  • Specific local government channels
  • Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
- NEW -
What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
  • At least 43 dB below
  • At least 53 dB below
  • At least 63 dB below
  • At least 73 dB below
- NEW -
What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?
  • .5
  • 1.0
  • 2.0
  • 3.0
Section E1C
LOCAL,Station REMOTEControl: AND AUTOMATIC CONTROL – 10 questions Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; amateur radio and the Internet; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 10
What is a remotely controlled station?
  • A station operated away from its regular home location
  • A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
  • A station operating under automatic control
  • A station controlled indirectly through a control link
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
  • The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
  • A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
  • Remotely controlling a station’'s antenna pattern through a directional control link
  • The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
  • Under local control there is no control operator
  • Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
  • Under automatic control there is no control operator
  • Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
- NEW -
When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
  • Never
  • Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
  • When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
  • When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
- NEW -
When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
  • Never
  • Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
  • When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
  • When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
  • Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
  • A control operator need not be present at the control point
  • A control operator must be present at the control point
  • Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
What is meant by local control?
  • Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
  • Automatically manipulating local station controls
  • Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
  • Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’'s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
  • 30 seconds
  • 3 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • 10 minutes
Which of these frequencies are available for an automatically controlled ground-station repeater operationoperating below 30 MHz?
  • 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
  • 24.940 - 24.990 MHz
  • 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
  • 29.500 - 29.700 MHz
What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
  • Only beacon, repeater or space stations
  • Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
  • Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craftscraft
  • Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
Section E1D
Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 10
REMOVED
Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station?
  • The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Houston, TX
  • The FCC’s International Bureau, Washington, DC
  • The Amateur Satellite Corp., Washington, DC
  • All of these answers are correct
What is the definition of the term telemetry?
  • One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
  • A twoTwo-way interactiveradiotelephone transmissiontransmissions in excess of 1000 feet
  • A twoTwo-way single channel transmissiontransmissions of data
  • One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
What is the amateur- satellite service?
  • A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self- training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
  • A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
  • A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
  • A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for weatherpublic informationservice gatheringbroadcast
What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
  • An amateur station located on the Earth’'s surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
  • An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate certain functions of a space station
  • An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth’'s surface
  • An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
  • An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
  • An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
  • An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
  • Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
  • AnyAll except those of Technician Class operators
  • Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  • AAll holder of any class of licenseclasses
  • Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?
  • The space station must be capable of effectingterminating a cessation of transmissions by telecommand when sodirected ordered by the FCC
  • The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
  • The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
  • TheAll stationof callthese signchoices mustare appear on all sides of the spacecraftcorrect
Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
  • Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
  • Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands
  • 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands
  • All HF bands
Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
  • 6 meters and 2 meters
  • 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
  • 2 meters and 1.25 meters
  • 2 meters
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
  • Any amateur station designated by NASA
  • Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
  • Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
  • All of these choices are correct
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
  • Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC’'s International Bureau
  • Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Section E1E
Volunteer examiner program: definitions,; qualifications,; preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
  • Removed questions: 8
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken?
  • All of the VECs
  • The VE team
  • The VE question pool team
  • The FCC’s Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
REMOVED
What is a VE?
  • An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer examiners to administer amateur license examinations
  • An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations
  • An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee
  • An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur operator license examinations
REMOVED
What is a VE team?
  • A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
  • The VEC staff
  • One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license
  • A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations
REMOVED
Which of the following persons seeking to become VEs cannot be accredited?
  • Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license
  • Persons less than 21 years of age
  • Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license suspended or revoked
  • Persons who are employees of the federal government
REMOVED
Where must the VE team be while administering an examination?
  • All of the administering VEs must be present where they can observe the examinees throughout the entire examination
  • The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the examinees to concentrate on the exam material
  • The VEs may be elsewhere provided at least one VE is present and is observing the examinees throughout the entire examination
  • The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that examination was administered properly
REMOVED
What must the VE team do with the examinee’s test papers once they have finished the examination?
  • The VE team must collect and send them to the NCVEC
  • The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading
  • The VE team must collect and grade them immediately
  • The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading
REMOVED
How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination?
  • Actual out-of-pocket expenses
  • The national minimum hourly wage for time spent providing examination services
  • Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually
  • As much as the examinee is willing to donate
REMOVED
What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?
  • 13 years old
  • 16 years old
  • 18 years old
  • 21 years old
What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
  • 5
  • 2
  • 4
  • 3
Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?
  • In FCC Part 97
  • In ana FCC-question pool maintained questionby poolthe FCC
  • In thea VEC-question pool maintained questionby poolall the VECs
  • In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
was E1E04
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
  • A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
  • A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
  • An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
  • The person thatwho has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
was E1E08
Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
  • Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
  • The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
  • The prospective VE obtains accreditation from athe VE teamFCC
  • The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
- NEW -
What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
  • Minimum passing score of 70%
  • Minimum passing score of 74%
  • Minimum passing score of 80%
  • Minimum passing score of 77%
was E1E10
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
  • The VEC coordinating the session
  • The FCC
  • Each administering VE
  • The VE session manager
was E1E11
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’'s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
  • Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
  • Immediately terminate the candidate’'s examination
  • Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
  • Immediately terminate everyone’severyones examination and close the session
was E1E12
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
  • Employees of the VE
  • Friends of the VE
  • TheRelatives VE’sof closethe relativesVE as listed in the FCC rules
  • All of these answerschoices are correct
was E1E13
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
  • Revocation of the VE’'s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE’'s amateur operator license grant
  • A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
  • A sentence of up to one year in prison
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
  • They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
  • They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
  • They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
  • They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
was E1E15
What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
  • Photocopy all examination documents and forwardsforward them to the FCC for processing
  • Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
  • Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
  • All these answerschoices are correct
was E1E16
What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
  • Return the application document to the examinee
  • Maintain the application form with the VEC’'s records
  • Send itthe application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
  • Destroy the application form
was E1E17
What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
  • The licensee's license will be cancelled
  • The person may be fined or imprisoned
  • The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
  • All ofthese thechoices aboveare correct
was E1E18
For which types of out-of-pocket expenses maydo the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
  • Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
  • Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
  • No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
  • Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
Section E1F
Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; Line A; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC-licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other’s countries?
  • CEPT agreement
  • IARP agreement
  • ITU agreement
  • All of these choices are correct
REMOVED
What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as certificated for use in the amateur service?
  • The RF amplifier may be marketed for use in any radio service
  • That particular RF amplifier may be marketed for use in the amateur service
  • All similar RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be marketed
  • All RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed
REMOVED
When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party?
  • When the repeater is operating under portable power
  • When the repeater is operating under local control
  • During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
  • Under no circumstances
REMOVED
FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to communicate under which of the following conditions?
  • When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC
  • When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications
  • When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any communication
  • All of these choices are correct
On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?
  • CEPT agreement
  • IARP agreement
  • ITU reciprocal license
  • All of these choices are correct
was E1F05
Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
  • It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
  • The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
  • It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
  • It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country’'s government
was E1F06
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
  • A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border
  • A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
  • A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
  • A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
was E1F07
Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
  • 440 - 450 MHz.
  • 53 - 54 MHz
  • 222 - 223 MHz
  • 420 - 430 MHz
was E1F08
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
  • An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope
  • An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
  • An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
  • An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
was E1F10
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
  • When the total money involved does not exceed $25
  • When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
  • When transmitting international third-party communications
  • When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
was E1F11
Which of the following types of amateur-operator-to-amateur-operator station communications are prohibited?
  • Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
  • Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
  • Communications that have a religious content
  • Communications in a language other than English
- NEW -
Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
  • A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
  • The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
  • The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
  • All of these choices are correct
was E1F13
What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
  • 1 W
  • 1.5 W
  • 10010 W
  • 1.5 kW
was E1F14
Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
  • It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
  • It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
  • It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
  • It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
was E1F15
Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
  • Any licensed amateur operator
  • Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Only Amateur Extra Class operators
was E1F16
What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
  • Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
  • AutomaticMessages retransmissionsintended for connection to users of anythe amateurmaritime communicationssatellite service
  • Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
  • All of these choices are correct
was E1F17
Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?
  • To provide for experimental amateur communications
  • To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
  • To provide additional spectrum for personal use
  • To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
Subelement E2
OPERATING PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES
  • Removed questions: 9
  • New questions: 8
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 68
Section E2A
Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
What is the primary reason for satellite users to limit their transmit ERP?
  • For RF exposure safety
  • Because the satellite transmitter output power is limited
  • To avoid limiting the signal of the other users
  • To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
REMOVED
What happens to a satellite's transmitted signal due to the Doppler Effect?
  • The signal strength is reduced as the satellite passes overhead
  • The signal frequency shifts lower as the satellite passes overhead
  • The signal frequency shifts higher as the satellite passes overhead
  • The polarization of the signal continually rotates
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
  • From west to east
  • From east to west
  • From south to north
  • From north to south
What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
  • From north to south
  • From west to east
  • From east to west
  • From south to north
What is the orbital period of aan Earth satellite?
  • The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
  • The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
  • The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
  • The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
What is meant by the term “mode” as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
  • The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
  • The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
  • The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
  • Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
  • Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
  • The location of the ground control station
  • The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
  • The uplink and downlink frequenciesfrequency ranges
On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
  • 432435-438 MHz
  • 144-146 MHz
  • 50.0-50.2 MHz
  • 2829.5 to 29.7 MHz
Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
  • FM and CW
  • SSB and SSTV
  • PSK and Packet
  • All of these answerschoices are correct
- NEW -
Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
  • To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
  • To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
  • To prevent the satellite from emitting out of band signals
  • To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
  • The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
  • The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
  • FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
  • Which sideband to use
Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
  • Because the satellite is rotatingspinning
  • Because of ionospheric absorption
  • Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
  • Because of the Doppler effectEffect
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
  • A linearly polarized antenna
  • A circularly polarized antenna
  • An isotropic antenna
  • A log-periodic dipole array
What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
  • By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
  • By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
  • By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
  • By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
  • HEO
  • GeosynchronousGeostationary
  • Geomagnetic
  • LEO
Section E2B
Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 19
REMOVED
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?
  • Immunity from fading due to limiting
  • Poor weak signal performance
  • Greater signal bandwidth
  • Greater complexity of receiving equipment
REMOVED
If 100 IRE units correspond to the most-white level in the NTSC standard video format, what is the level of the most-black signal?
  • 140 IRE units
  • 7.5 IRE units
  • 0 IRE units
  • -40 IRE units
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
  • 30
  • 60
  • 525
  • 1080
How is an interlaceinterlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  • By scanning two fields simultaneously
  • By scanning each field from bottom to top
  • By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
  • By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next
What is blanking in a video signal?
  • Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
  • Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
  • Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
  • Transmitting a black and white test pattern
Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
  • The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
  • The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
  • Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
  • Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
What is vestigial sideband modulation?
  • Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other sidebandare is transmitted
  • A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
  • Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
  • Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
What is the name of the video signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
  • Luminance
  • Chroma
  • Hue
  • Spectral Intensity
Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
  • Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
  • A separate VHF or UHF audio link
  • Frequency modulation of the video carrier
  • All of these choices are correct
What hardware, other than a transceiverreceiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV basedusing on Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
  • A special IF converter
  • A special front end limiter
  • A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
  • No other hardware is needed
Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
  • 3 KHz
  • 10 KHz
  • 15 KHz
  • 20 KHz
What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission?
  • To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
  • To identify the SSTV mode being used
  • To provide vertical synchronization
  • To identify the callsigncall sign of the station transmitting
How are analog slow-scanSSTV television images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
  • Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
  • Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
  • Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using FMPSK
  • Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
  • 30 to 60
  • 60 or 100
  • 128 or 256
  • 180 or 360
What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
  • Tone frequency
  • Tone amplitude
  • Sync amplitude
  • Sync frequency
What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
  • Specific tone frequencies
  • Elapsed time
  • Specific tone amplitudes
  • A two-tone signal
Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
  • PAL
  • DRM
  • Scottie
  • NTSC
was E2B18
What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
  • 600 Hz
  • 3 kHz
  • 2 MHz
  • 6 MHz
was E2B19
On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FMTVFM ATV transmissions?
  • 14.230 MHz
  • 29.6 MHz
  • 52.525 MHz
  • 1255 MHz
was E2B20
What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
  • None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
  • They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
  • They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
  • They are not permitted above 54 MHz
Section E2C
Operating methods, part 1: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; automatic HF forwarding; selecting an operating frequency
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of the following frequencies would generally be acceptable for U.S. stations to work other U.S. stations in a phone contest?
  • 5405 kHz
  • 14.310 MHz
  • 50.050 MHz
  • 146.52 MHz
Which of the following is true about contest operating?
  • Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
  • Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
  • It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
  • Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
Which of the following best describes “the term "self -spotting”" in regards to contest operating?
  • The generally prohibited practice of posting one’'s own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
  • The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
  • A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’'s frequency before calling that station
  • An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’'s frequency before calling that station
From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
  • 30 meters
  • 6 meters
  • 2 meters
  • 33 cm
On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
  • 3.525 MHz
  • 14.020 MHz
  • 28.330 MHz
  • 146.52 MHz
- NEW -
What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
  • To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
  • To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
  • To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
  • To relay calls to and from a DX station
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
  • At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
  • In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
  • In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
  • In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
What is the Cabrillo format?
  • A standard for organizingsubmission informationof inelectronic contest log fileslogs
  • A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
  • The most common set of contest rules
  • The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?
  • Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
  • The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
  • The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit
  • If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work?
  • If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
  • If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
  • A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
  • The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station
Why might a phone DX station state that hethey isare listening on another frequency?
  • Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
  • To separate the calling stations from the DX station
  • To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
  • All of these choices are correct
How should you generally signidentify your callstation when attempting to contact a DX station working a “pileup” or in a contest?
  • Send your full call sign once or twice
  • Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
  • Send your full call sign and grid square
  • Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
InWhat Northmight Americahelp duringto lowrestore sunspotcontact activity, when DX signals frombecome Europetoo become weak andto flutterycopy across an entire HF band twoa tofew three hours after sunset, what might help to contact other European DX stations?
  • Switch to a higher frequency HF band
  • Switch to a lower frequency HF band
  • Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
  • Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
Section E2D
Operating methods, part 2: VHF and UHF digital modes; packet clusters; Automatic Position Reporting System (APRS)
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What does “command mode” mean in packet operations?
  • Your computer is ready to run packet communications software
  • The TNC is ready to receive instructions via the keyboard
  • Your TNC has received a command packet from a remote TNC
  • The computer is ready to be set up to communicate with the TNC
REMOVED
Which of the follow is true when comparing HF and 2-meter packet operations?
  • HF packet typically uses FSK with a data rate of 300 baud; 2-meter packet uses AFSK with a data rate of 1200 baud
  • HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use different codes for information exchange
  • HF packet is limited to Amateur Extra class amateur licensees; 2-meter packet is open to all but Novice Class amateur licensees
  • HF and 2-meter packet operations are both limited to CW/Data-only band segments
REMOVED
Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your geographical location over the APRS network?
  • The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite receiver
  • The latitude and longitude of your location, preferably in degrees, minutes and seconds, entered into the APRS computer software
  • The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a LORAN navigation system
  • Any of these choices is correct
- NEW -
Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
  • WSPR
  • FSK441
  • Hellschreiber
  • APRS
What is the definition of “baud”??
  • The number of data symbols transmitted per second
  • The number of characters transmitted per second
  • The number of characters transmitted per minute
  • The number of words transmitted per minute
- NEW -
Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
  • FSK441
  • PACTOR III
  • Olivia
  • JT65
What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
  • To upload operational software for the transponder
  • To delay download of telemetry untilbetween the satellite is over the control stationsatellites
  • To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
  • To relay messages between satellites
Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
  • Digipeating
  • Store-and-forward
  • Multi-satellite relaying
  • Node hopping
Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?
  • 144.2039 MHz
  • 144.3920 MHz
  • 145.02 MHz
  • 146.52 MHz
Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?
  • AX.25PACTOR
  • 802.11
  • PACTORAX.25
  • AMTOR
Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
  • ConnectUnnumbered framesInformation
  • Disconnect frames
  • Acknowledgement frames
  • Unnumbered Information framesConnect
Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
  • AMTOR
  • 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
  • PSK31
  • 300-baud packet
How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
  • An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
  • APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
  • An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
  • Polar coordinates
  • Time and frequency
  • Radio direction finding LOPs
  • Latitude and longitude
- NEW -
How does JT65 improve EME communications?
  • It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
  • It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
  • It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
  • All of these choices are correct
Section E2E
Operating methods, part 3: operating HF digital modes; error correction
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What is the Baudot code?
  • A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems using seven data bits
  • A binary code consisting of eight data bits
  • An alternate name for Morse code
  • The International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2 (ITA2) which uses five data bits
WhatWhich istype aof commonmodulation methodis ofcommon transmittingfor data emissions below 30 MHz?
  • DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
  • FSK/AFSK
  • Pulse modulation
  • Spread spectrum
What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
  • Forward Error Correction
  • First Error Correction
  • Fatal Error Correction
  • Final Error Correction
How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
  • By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
  • By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
  • By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
  • By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
  • Selective fading has occurred
  • One of the signal filters has saturated
  • The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
  • The mark and space signal have been inverted
How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
  • Special binary codes provide automatic correction
  • Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
  • If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
  • If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?
  • 48 baud
  • 110 baud
  • 300 baud
  • 1200 baud
What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
  • 31 Hz
  • 316 Hz
  • 550 Hz
  • 2.16 kHz
Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
  • Hellschreiber
  • PACTOR
  • RTTY
  • AMTOR
Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
  • RTTY
  • PACTOR
  • MT63
  • PSK31
was E2E12
Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
  • MFSK16
  • 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
  • PSK31
  • 300-baud packet
- NEW -
What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
  • Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
  • Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
  • Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
  • Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
- NEW -
Which type of digital communication does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
  • Winlink
  • RTTY
  • PSK31
  • MFSK
Subelement E3
RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION
  • Removed questions: 7
  • New questions: 6
  • Updated questions: 7
  • Total questions: 35
Section E3A
Propagation and technique, part 1: Earth-Moon-Earth communications (EME);, meteor scatter
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 10
REMOVED
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an EME contact?
  • Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
  • One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
  • Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
  • Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes
REMOVED
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact?
  • Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
  • One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
  • Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
  • Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes
REMOVED
What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact?
  • Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes
  • One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
  • 15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then receives for the following 15 seconds
  • 30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds and then receives for the following 30 seconds
What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by moonbounceMoon bounce?
  • 500 miles, if the moonMoon is at perigee
  • 2000 miles, if the moonMoon is at apogee
  • 5000 miles, if the moonMoon is at perigee
  • 12,000 miles, as long as both can “"see”" the moonMoon
What characterizes libration fading of an earthEarth-moonMoon-earthEarth signal?
  • A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
  • A fluttery irregular fading
  • A gradual loss of signal as the sunSun rises
  • The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
  • When the moonMoon is at perigee
  • When the moonMoon is full
  • When the moonMoon is at apogee
  • When the MUF is above 30 MHz
What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
  • Equipment with very wide bandwidth
  • Equipment with very low dynamic range
  • Equipment with very low gain
  • Equipment with very low noise figures
- NEW -
Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
  • Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
  • Storing and forwarding digital messages
  • Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
  • High speed CW identification to avoid fading
was E3A07
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stationssignals in the 2 meter band?
  • 144.000 - 144.001 MHz
  • 144.000 - 144.100 MHz
  • 144.100 - 144.300 MHz
  • 145.000 - 145.100 MHz
was E3A08
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stationssignals in the 70 cm band?
  • 430.000 - 430.150 MHz
  • 430.100 - 431.100 MHz
  • 431.100 - 431.200 MHz
  • 432.000 - 432.100 MHz
was E3A09
When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
  • The E layer
  • The F1 layer
  • The F2 layer
  • The D layer
was E3A10
Which range of frequenciesthe following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?
  • 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
  • 10 - 14 MHz
  • 28 - 148 MHz
  • 220 - 450 MHz
- NEW -
Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?
  • 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
  • Use of high speed CW or digital modes
  • Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
  • All of these choices are correct
Section E3B
Propagation and technique, part 2: transequatorial;trans-equatorial, long path;, gray -line; multi-path propagation
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What communications are possible during gray-line propagation?
  • Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band
  • Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands
  • Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands
  • Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
What is transequatorial propagation?
  • Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
  • 1000 miles
  • 2500 miles
  • 5000 miles
  • 7500 miles
What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
  • Morning
  • Noon
  • Afternoon or early evening
  • Late at night
What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
  • Long-path
  • Sporadic-E
  • Transequatorial
  • Auroral
Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
  • 160 to 40 meters
  • 30 to 10 meters
  • 160 to 10 meters
  • 6 meters to 2 meters
Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
  • 80 meters
  • 20 meters
  • 10 meters
  • 6 meters
Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
  • High D layer absorption
  • Meteor scatter
  • Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
  • Receipt of a signal by more than one path
What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
  • Transequatorial
  • Sporadic-E
  • Long-path
  • Gray-line
At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalentlikely to occur?
  • At sunrise and sunset
  • When the sunSun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
  • When the sunSun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
  • When the sunSun is directly above the location of the receiving station
What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
  • At midday, the sun,Sun being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
  • At twilight, solarD-layer absorption drops greatly, while atmosphericE-layer ionizationand isF-layer notpropagation weakenedremain enough to reduce the MUFstrong
  • AtIn darkness, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization remains steady
  • At mid afternoon, the sunSun heats the ionosphere, increasingdecreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
- NEW -
Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
  • Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
  • Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
  • Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
  • Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
Section E3C
Propagation and technique, part 3: AuroralAurora propagation; selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects of ground on propagation; less common propagation modes
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What effect does auroral activity have on radio communications?
  • Signals experience long-delay echo
  • FM communications are clearer
  • CW signals have a clearer tone
  • CW signals have a fluttery tone
REMOVED
What causes selective fading?
  • Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
  • Phase differences in the received signal caused by different paths
  • Large changes in the height of the ionosphere
  • Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations
REMOVED
As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation change?
  • It increases
  • It decreases
  • It stays the same
  • Radio waves don't propagate along the Earth's surface
- NEW -
Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
  • SSB signals are raspy
  • Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
  • CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
  • All of these choices are correct
What is the cause of auroralAurora activity?
  • ReflectionsThe ininteraction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
  • A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
  • The emissioninteraction of charged particles from the sunSun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
  • Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
Where in the ionosphere does auroralAurora activity occur?
  • AtIn Fthe F1-region height
  • In the equatorial bandF2-region
  • AtIn the D-region height
  • AtIn the E-region height
Which emission mode is best for auroralAurora propagation?
  • CW
  • SSB
  • FM
  • RTTY
- NEW -
Which of the following describes selective fading?
  • Variability of signal strength with beam heading
  • Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
  • Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
  • Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
HowBy how much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
  • By approximately 15% of the distance
  • By approximately twice the distance
  • By approximately one-half the distance
  • By approximately four times the distance
How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element, horizontally polarized beam antenna vary with its height above ground?
  • The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height
  • The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height
  • The horizontal beam width increases with height
  • The horizontal beam width decreases with height
What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?
  • Oblique-angle ray
  • Pedersen ray
  • Ordinary ray
  • Heaviside ray
WhatWhich effectof the following is usually responsible for propagatingcausing a VHF signalsignals overto 500propagate for hundreds of miles?
  • D-region absorption
  • Faraday rotation
  • Tropospheric ducting
  • MoonbounceGround wave
How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
  • The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
  • The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
  • The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction
  • The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroralaurora propagation?
  • South
  • North
  • East
  • West
- NEW -
How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
  • It stays the same
  • It increases
  • It decreases
  • It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
What type of polarization doesis mostbest for ground-wave propagation have?
  • Vertical
  • Horizontal
  • Circular
  • Elliptical
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
  • E-region skip
  • D-region skip
  • AuroralDownward skipbending due to aurora refraction
  • RadioDownward wavesbending maydue beto bentdensity variations in the atmosphere
Subelement E4
AMATEUR RADIO TECHNOLOGY AND MEASUREMENTSPRACTICES
  • Removed questions: 9
  • New questions: 6
  • Updated questions: 11
  • Total questions: 70
Section E4A
Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of the following is most important when adjusting PSK31 transmitting levels?
  • Power output
  • PA current
  • ALC level
  • SWR
REMOVED
Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit?
  • A logic probe
  • An ohmmeter
  • An electroscope
  • A Wheatstone bridge
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from aan conventional oscilloscope?
  • A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
  • A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
  • A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
  • A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
  • SWR
  • Q
  • Time
  • Frequency
Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
  • Amplitude
  • Duration
  • SWR
  • Q
Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
  • A spectrum analyzer
  • A wattmeter
  • A logic analyzer
  • A time-domain reflectometer
Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission?
  • A wattmeter
  • A spectrum analyzer
  • A logic analyzer
  • A time-domain reflectometer
Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
  • The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
  • Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
  • The spectral output of a transmitter
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer vs.compared ato an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
  • Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
  • Antenna analyzers typically do not need an external RF source
  • Antenna analyzers typically display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
  • All of these answerschoices are correct
Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
  • A spectrum analyzer
  • A Q meter
  • An ohmmeter
  • An antenna analyzer
- NEW -
Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?
  • Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
  • Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output
  • Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following istests aestablishes usefulthat test for a functioningsilicon NPN transistorjunction in an active circuit where the transistor shouldis be biased "on" ?
  • Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 ohms
  • Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
  • Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 volts
  • Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
- NEW -
Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?
  • Dip meter
  • Oscilloscope
  • Ohmmeter
  • Q meter
Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
  • Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
  • Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
  • Match the antenna to the load
  • All of these choices are correct
Section E4B
Measurement technique and limitationstechniques: instrumentInstrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q"; instrument calibration
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
Which of the following is a characteristic of a good harmonic frequency marker?
  • Wide tuning range
  • Frequency stability
  • Linear output amplifier
  • All of the above
REMOVED
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 146.52 Hz
  • 10 Hz
  • 146.52 kHz
  • 1465.20 Hz
REMOVED
Which of these factors limits the accuracy of a D'Arsonval-type meter?
  • Its magnetic flux density
  • Coil impedance
  • Deflection rate
  • Electromagnet current
was E4B02
Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
  • Input attenuator accuracy
  • Time base accuracy
  • Decade divider accuracy
  • Temperature coefficient of the logic
was E4B03
What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
  • It provides an excellent match under all conditions
  • It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
  • The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null in voltage, which can be done very precisely
  • It can display results directly in Smith chart format
was E4B04
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 165.2 Hz
  • 14.652 kHz
  • 146.52 Hz
  • 1.4652 MHz
was E4B05
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 14.652 Hz
  • 0.1 MHz
  • 1.4652 Hz
  • 1.4652 kHz
was E4B04
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.010 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 165146.252 Hz
  • 14.65210 kHzHz
  • 146.52 HzkHz
  • 11465.465220 MHzHz
was E4B07
How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
  • 100 watts
  • 125 watts
  • 25 watts
  • 75 watts
was E4B08
Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
  • Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
  • Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
  • Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
  • All of these choices are correct
was E4B09
Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
  • High reluctance input
  • Low reluctance input
  • High impedance input
  • Low impedance input
was E4B10
What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feedlinefeed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
  • There is possibly a short to ground in the feedlinefeed line
  • The transmitter is not properly neutralized
  • There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feedlinefeed line
  • There is more power going into the antenna
was E4B11
Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
  • Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
  • Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
  • Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
  • Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
was E4B12
How should a portable SWRantenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feedpointfeed point impedance?
  • Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
  • Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
  • Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
  • Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
was E4B13
What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
  • The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter
  • When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test
  • When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
  • When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed
was E4B14
How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
  • A square wave is observeddisplayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave isare as nearly flat as possible
  • A high frequency sine wave is observed,displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
  • A frequency standard is observed,displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
  • A DC voltage standard is observed,displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
was E4B15
What happens if a dip- meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
  • Harmonics are generated
  • A less accurate reading results
  • Cross modulation occurs
  • Intermodulation distortion occurs
was E4B17
Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?
  • The inductance to capacitance ratio
  • The frequency shift
  • The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
  • The resonant frequency of the circuit
Section E4C
Receiver performance characteristics, part 1: phase noise,; capture effect,; noise floor,; image rejection,; MDS,; signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
Which of the following is the result of the capture effect in an FM receiver?
  • All signals on a frequency are demodulated
  • None of the signals could be heard
  • The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal
  • The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
REMOVED
What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?
  • The minimum level of noise at the audio output when the RF gain is turned all the way down
  • The equivalent phase noise power generated by the local oscillator
  • The minimum level of noise that will overload the RF amplifier stage
  • The equivalent input noise power when the antenna is replaced with a matched dummy load
REMOVED
Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting condition for sensitivity in a modern communications receiver operating at 14 MHz?
  • The noise figure of the RF amplifier
  • Mixer noise
  • Conversion noise
  • Atmospheric noise
REMOVED
Which of these choices is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur VHF FM receiver?
  • 1 kHz
  • 2.4 kHz
  • 4.2 kHz
  • 15 kHz
What is thean effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
  • It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
  • It reduces the receiver sensitivity
  • It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
  • It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
- NEW -
Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
  • A front-end filter or pre-selector
  • A narrow IF filter
  • A notch filter
  • A properly adjusted product detector
What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
  • Desensitization
  • Cross-modulation interference
  • Capture effect
  • Frequency discrimination
- NEW -
What is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver?
  • The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
  • The noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
  • The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
  • The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise
What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
  • The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
  • The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
  • The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
  • The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
TheA thermalCW noisereceiver valuewith ofthe aAGC receiveroff ishas an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What iswould be the theoreticallylevel bestof minimuman detectableunmodulated signalcarrier forinput to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth receiver?
  • 174 dBm
  • -164 dBm
  • -155 dBm
  • -148 dBm
What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
  • The meter display sensitivity
  • The minimum discernible signal
  • The multiplex distortion stability
  • The maximum detectable spectrum
How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
  • It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
  • It would increaseimprove weak signal to noise ratiosensitivity
  • It would reduce bandwidth
  • It would increase bandwidth
- NEW -
Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
  • Fewer components in the receiver
  • Reduced drift
  • Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
  • Improved receiver noise figure
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
  • 100 Hz
  • 300 Hz
  • 6000 Hz
  • 2400 Hz
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur single-sidebandSSB phone receiver?
  • 1 kHz
  • 2.4 kHz
  • 4.2 kHz
  • 4.8 kHz
What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
  • Output-offset overshoot
  • Filter ringing
  • Thermal-noise distortion
  • Undesired signals may be heard
How does a narrow -band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
  • It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
  • It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
  • It improves dynamic range by keepingattenuating strong signals near the receive frequency out of the IF stages
  • All of these choicechoices are correct
- NEW -
On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
  • 13.845 MHz
  • 14.755 MHz
  • 14.445 MHz
  • 15.210 MHz
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected?
  • Detector noise
  • Induction motor noise
  • Receiver front-end noise
  • Atmospheric noise
Section E4D
Receiver performance characteristics, part 2: blocking dynamic range,; intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselection
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 14
What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
  • The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression, and the level of the noise floor
  • The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
  • The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
  • The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
Which of the following describes two types of problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
  • Cross -modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
  • Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted
  • Cross -modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
  • Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
  • When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitter final amplifierstransmitters
  • When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitter final amplifierstransmitters
  • When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
  • When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
WhatWhich isof anthe effectivefollowing waymay to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference betweenin twoa repeater transmitterscaused by another transmitter operating in close proximity to one another?
  • ByA installing a band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
  • ByA installing a properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
  • ByA using a Class C final amplifier
  • ByA using a Class D final amplifier
IfWhat atransmitter receiverfrequencies tunedwould tocause 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal wheneverin a nearbyreceiver transmittertuned transmitsto on 146.5270 MHz, whatwhen area thenearby twostation mosttransmits likelyon frequencies146.52 for the other interfering signalMHz?
  • 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
  • 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
  • 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
  • 73173.35 MHz and 239139.40 MHz
IfWhat is the signalsterm offor two transmitters mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals atgenerated by the summixing andof differencetwo frequenciesor ofmore the original signals are generated, what is this called?
  • Amplifier desensitization
  • Neutralization
  • Adjacent channel interference
  • Intermodulation interference
Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
  • A large increase in background noise
  • A reduction in apparent signal strength
  • The desired signal can no longer be heard
  • The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
  • Too little gain
  • Lack of neutralization
  • Nonlinear circuits or devices
  • Positive feedback
What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
  • To store often-used frequencies
  • To provide a range of AGC time constants
  • To improveincrease rejection of unwanted signals
  • To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
  • Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
  • The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
  • A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate thea samethird-order outputintermodulation onproduct with the thirdsame orderlevel intermodulation frequency as on the input frequencysignals
  • A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?
  • The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is itselfalso likely to be within the band
  • The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
  • Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
  • Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
  • Desensitization
  • Quieting
  • Cross-modulation interference
  • Squelch gain rollback
Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
  • Audio gain adjusted too low
  • Strong adjacent-channel signals
  • Audio bias adjusted too high
  • Squelch gain adjusted too lowmisadjusted
Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
  • Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
  • Raise the receiver IF frequency
  • Increase the receiver front end gain
  • Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
Section E4E
Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 14
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?
  • Ignition Noisenoise
  • Broadband “white” noise
  • Heterodyne interference
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
  • Broadband “white” noise
  • Ignition noise
  • Power line noise
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
  • Signals which are constant at all IF levels
  • Signals which appear correlated across a wide bandwidth
  • Signals which appear at one IF but not another
  • Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
  • By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
  • By connectinginstalling thea radionoise tosuppression theresistor battery by the longest possible path and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads
  • By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
  • By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
  • By installing a ferritehigh beadpass onfilter thein ACseries linewith usedthe tomotor's power the motorleads
  • By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
  • By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
  • By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
  • Solar radio frequency emissions
  • Thunderstorms
  • Geomagnetic storms
  • Meteor showers
How can you determine if line- noise interference is being generated within your home?
  • By checking the power- line voltage with a time- domain reflectometer
  • By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
  • By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery- operated radio
  • By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitterantenna?
  • A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
  • An electrical-sparking signal
  • A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
  • Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF type noise blanker?
  • Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
  • The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
  • Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
  • FM signals can no longer be demodulated
What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a "touch controlled" electrical device?
  • The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz FMhum on a SSB or CW receiver
  • The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
  • The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
  • All of these answerschoices are correct
WhatWhich of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals insidewithin one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
  • The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
  • Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the BCbroadcast signals
  • You are receiving sky- wave signals from a distant station
  • Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
  • The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
  • Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will always overwhelm the desired signal
  • Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
  • Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
What might be the cause of a loud "roaring" or "buzzing" AC line type of interference that comes and goes at intervals?
  • Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
  • A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
  • A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
  • All of these answerschoices are correct
What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
  • A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
  • A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
  • The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
  • A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
Subelement E5
ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 71
Section E5A
Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits:; series and parallel resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 17
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
  • Resonance
  • Capacitance
  • Conductance
  • Resistance
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
  • The highest frequency that will pass current
  • The lowest frequency that will pass current
  • The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
  • The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-CRLC circuit at resonance?
  • High, as compared to the circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
  • Approximately equal to inductive reactance
  • Approximately equal to circuit resistance
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
  • Approximately equal to circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to inductive reactance
  • Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-CRLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?
  • Minimum
  • Maximum
  • R/L
  • L/R
What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel L-CLC circuit at resonance?
  • It is at a minimum
  • It is at a maximum
  • It equals 1 divided by the quantity [ 2 multipliedtimes by Pi, multiplied by the square root of ( inductance "L" multiplied by capacitance "C" ) ]
  • It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L"
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-CRLC circuit at resonance?
  • Minimum
  • Maximum
  • R/L
  • L/R
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
  • The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
  • The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
  • The voltage and current are in phase
  • The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit at resonance?
  • The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
  • The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
  • The voltage and current are in phase
  • The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
  • 18.9 kHz
  • 1.89 kHz
  • 94.5 kHz
  • 9.45 kHz
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
  • 157.8 Hz
  • 315.6 Hz
  • 47.3 kHz
  • 23.67 kHz
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
  • 436.6 kHz
  • 218.3 kHz
  • 31.4 kHz
  • 15.7 kHz
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
  • 38.1 kHz
  • 76.2 kHz
  • 1.332 kHz
  • 2.665 kHz
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
  • 44.72 MHz
  • 22.36 MHz
  • 3.56 MHz
  • 1.78 MHz
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
  • 3.76 MHz
  • 1.78 MHz
  • 11.18 MHz
  • 22.36 MHz
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
  • 23.5 MHz
  • 23.5 kHz
  • 7.12 kHz
  • 7.12 MHz
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
  • 10.1 MHz
  • 63.2 MHz
  • 10.1 kHz
  • 63.2 kHz
Section E5B
Time constants and phase relationships: R/L/CRLC time constants:; definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series and parallel circuits
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 13
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supplyapplied voltage?
  • An exponential rate of one
  • One time constant
  • One exponential period
  • A time factor of one
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored chargevoltage?
  • One discharge period
  • An exponential discharge rate of one
  • A discharge factor of one
  • One time constant
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?
  • 86.5%
  • 63.2%
  • 36.8%
  • 13.5%
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
  • 55 seconds
  • 110 seconds
  • 440 seconds
  • 220 seconds
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
  • 0.02 seconds
  • 0.04 seconds
  • 20 seconds
  • 40 seconds
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
  • 4.50 seconds
  • 9 seconds
  • 450 seconds
  • 900 seconds
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-CRLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
  • 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-CRLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
  • Voltage and current are in phase
  • Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
  • Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
  • Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
  • Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
  • Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
  • Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
  • Voltage and current are in phase
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
  • 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
Section E5C
Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar coordinates; rectangular coordinates
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 23
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
  • 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
  • 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
  • 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
  • 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
  • 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
  • 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  • 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
  • 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
  • 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
  • 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
  • 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
  • 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
  • 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
  • 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
  • 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
  • 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
  • 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
  • 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
  • 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
  • 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
  • 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?
  • TheResistive voltage or current associated with the resistive component
  • TheReactive voltage or current associated with the reactive component
  • The sum of the reactive and resistive components
  • The difference between the resistive and reactive components
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
  • TheResistive voltage or current associated with the resistive component
  • TheReactive voltage or current associated with the reactive component
  • The sum of the reactive and resistive components
  • The difference between the resistive and reactive components
What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates?
  • The magnitude and phase of the point
  • The sine and cosine values
  • The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
  • The tangent and cotangent values
If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal lineaxis, what do you know about the circuit?
  • It has to be a direct current circuit
  • It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
  • It contains resistance and inductive reactance
  • It is equivalent to a pure resistance
What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
  • Maidenhead grid
  • Faraday grid
  • Elliptical coordinates
  • Rectangular coordinates
What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
  • Maidenhead grid
  • Faraday grid
  • Elliptical coordinates
  • Polar coordinates
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
  • 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
  • 5.03 xE-06 10 –E05 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
  • 173 - j100 ohms
  • 200 + j100 ohms
  • 173 + j100 ohms
  • 200 - j100 ohms
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?
  • 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
  • 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  • 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
  • Point 2
  • Point 4
  • Point 5
  • Point 6
Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 7
  • Point 8
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 7
  • Point 8
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprisedconsisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
  • 40 + j31,400
  • 40 - j31,400
  • 31,400 + j40
  • 31,400 - j40
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 5
  • Point 8
Section E5D
AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 18
REMOVED
What is a magnetic field?
  • Electric current through the space around a permanent magnet
  • The region surrounding a magnet through which a magnetic force acts
  • The space between the plates of a charged capacitor, through which a magnetic force acts
  • The force that drives current through a resistor
REMOVED
What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated with inductors and capacitors?
  • Effective power
  • True power
  • Peak envelope power
  • Reactive power
What is the result of skin effect?
  • As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
  • As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
  • Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
  • Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?
  • Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
  • Because of the Heisenburg Effect
  • Because of skin effect
  • Because conductors are non-linear devices
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
  • A battery
  • A transformer
  • A capacitor
  • An inductor
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
  • Coulomb
  • Joule
  • Watt
  • Volt
- NEW -
Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
  • Potential differences between two points in space
  • Electric current
  • A charged capacitor
  • A battery
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
  • In the same direction as the current
  • In a direction opposite to the current
  • In all directions; omnidirectional
  • In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?
  • The resistance divided by the current
  • The ratio of the current to the resistance
  • The diameter of the conductor
  • The amount of current
What istype theof term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
  • Amperes-joulesElectromechanical energy
  • Potential energy
  • Joules-coulombsThermodynamic energy
  • Kinetic energy
was E5D10
InWhat ahappens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors, what happens to reactive power?
  • It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
  • It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
  • It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
  • It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
was E5D11
How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
  • By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
  • By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
  • By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
  • By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
was E5D12
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 1.414
  • 0.866
  • 0.5
  • 1.73
was E5D13
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
  • 400 watts
  • 80 watts
  • 2000 watts
  • 50 watts
was E5D14
How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
  • 70.7 Watts
  • 100 Watts
  • 141.4 Watts
  • 200 Watts
was E5D15
What is reactive power?
  • Wattless, nonproductive power
  • Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
  • Power lost because of capacitor leakage
  • Power consumed in circuit Q
was E5D16
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 0.866
  • 1.0
  • 0.5
  • 0.707
was E5D17
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 1.73
  • 0.5
  • 0.866
  • 0.577
was E5D18
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
  • 200 watts
  • 1000 watts
  • 1600 watts
  • 600 watts
was E5D19
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 wattsVA?
  • 704 W
  • 355 W
  • 252 W
  • 1.42 mW
Subelement E6
CIRCUIT COMPONENTS
  • Removed questions: 25
  • New questions: 17
  • Updated questions: 14
  • Total questions: 83
Section E6A
Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; (germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type); transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, power; field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and nonmetallic characteristics?
  • Silicon and gold
  • Silicon and germanium
  • Galena and germanium
  • Galena and bismuth
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
  • In high-current rectifier circuits
  • In high-power audio circuits
  • At microwave frequencies
  • At very low frequency RF circuits
WhatWhich type of the following semiconductor materialmaterials contains moreexcess free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals?
  • N-type
  • P-type
  • Bipolar
  • Insulated gate
What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
  • Free neutrons
  • Free protons
  • Holes
  • Free electrons
What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
  • Insulator impurity
  • N-type impurity
  • Acceptor impurity
  • Donor impurity
What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
  • The change of collector current with respect to base current
  • The change of base current with respect to collector current
  • The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
  • The change of collector current with respect to gate current
What is meant by the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
  • The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
  • The change in collector current with respect to base current
  • The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
  • The switching speed of the transistor
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
What term indicates the frequency at which athe transistor grounded -base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
  • Corner frequency
  • Alpha rejection frequency
  • Beta cutoff frequency
  • Alpha cutoff frequency
What is a depletion-mode FET?
  • An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
  • An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
  • AnAny FET without a channel so no current flows with zero gate voltage
  • AnAny FET withoutfor awhich channelholes soare maximumthe gatemajority current flowscarriers
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 6
Why do many MOSFET devices have built-ininternally gate-protectiveconnected Zener diodes on the gates?
  • To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
  • To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
  • To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
  • To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
What do the initials CMOS stand for?
  • Common modeMode oscillatingOscillating systemSystem
  • Complementary micaMica-oxideOxide siliconSilicon
  • Complementary metalMetal-oxideOxide semiconductorSemiconductor
  • ComplementaryCommon metal-oxideMode substrateOrganic Silicon
How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?
  • They cannotare beboth comparedlow without first knowing the supply voltageimpedance
  • An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
  • An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
  • TheThey inputare impedanceboth ofhigh FETs and bipolar transistors is the sameimpedance
was E6A16
WhatWhich type of the following semiconductor materialmaterials contains feweran freeexcess electronsof thanholes purein germaniumthe orouter siliconshell crystalsof electrons?
  • N-type
  • P-type
  • Superconductor-type
  • Bipolar-type
was E6A17
What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
  • Holes
  • Free electrons
  • Free protons
  • Free neutrons
was E6A18
What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
  • Gate 1, gate 2, drain
  • Emitter, base, collector
  • Emitter, base 1, base 2
  • Gate, drain, source
Section E6B
Semiconductor diodes
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
  • A high forward resistance
  • A very high PIV
  • A negative resistance region
  • A high forward current rating
REMOVED
In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?
  • 8
  • 6
  • 2
  • 1
REMOVED
What limits the maximum forward current rating in a junction diode?
  • Peak inverse voltage
  • Junction temperature
  • Forward voltage
  • Back EMF
REMOVED
How are junction diodes rated?
  • Maximum forward current and capacitance
  • Maximum reverse current and PIV
  • Maximum reverse current and capacitance
  • Maximum forward current and PIV
What is the principalmost useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
  • A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
  • A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
  • A negative resistance region
  • An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
was E6B03
What is an important characteristic of a Schottky Barrier diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
  • Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
  • Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
  • Enhanced carrier retention time
  • Less forward voltage drop
was E6B04
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
  • Point contact
  • Zener
  • Tunnel
  • Junction
was E6B05
What type of semiconductor device variesis itsdesigned internalfor capacitanceuse as thea voltage-controlled applied to its terminals variescapacitor?
  • Varactor diode
  • Tunnel diode
  • Silicon-controlled rectifier
  • Zener diode
- NEW -
What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
  • Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
  • Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
  • Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
  • A large region of intrinsic material
was E6B07
WhatWhich of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
  • As balanced mixers in FM generation
  • As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
  • As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
  • As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector
- NEW -
What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?
  • Excessive inverse voltage
  • Excessive junction temperature
  • Insufficient forward voltage
  • Charge carrier depletion
was E6B09
Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
  • Metal-semiconductor junction
  • Electrolytic rectifier
  • CMOS-field effect
  • Thermionic emission diode
was E6B10
What is a common use for point contact diodes?
  • As a constant current source
  • As a constant voltage source
  • As an RF detector
  • As a high voltage rectifier
was E6B11
In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
  • 1
  • 5
  • 6
  • 7
- NEW -
What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
  • Forward DC bias current
  • A sub-harmonic pump signal
  • Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
  • Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
was E6B13
What is one common use for PIN diodes?
  • As a constant current source
  • As a constant voltage source
  • As an RF switch
  • As a high voltage rectifier
was E6B14
What type of bias is required for an LED to produceemit luminescencelight?
  • Reverse bias
  • Forward bias
  • Zero bias
  • Inductive bias
Section E6C
Integrated circuits: TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated circuits; gates
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
What level of input voltage is a logic "high" in a TTL device operating with a positive 5-volt power supply?
  • 2.0 to 5.5 volts
  • 1.5 to 3.0 volts
  • 1.0 to 1.5 volts
  • -5.0 to -2.0 volts
REMOVED
What level of input voltage is a logic "low" in a TTL device operating with a positive 5-volt power-supply?
  • -2.0 to -5.5 volts
  • 2.0 to 5.5 volts
  • 0.0 to 0.8 volts
  • -0.8 to 0.4 volts
REMOVED
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
REMOVED
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
  • 12 volts
  • 1.5 volts
  • 5 volts
  • 13.6 volts
What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
  • A logic-high state
  • A logic-low state
  • The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
  • Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
- NEW -
Which of the following describes tri-state logic?
  • Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
  • Logic devices that utilize ternary math
  • Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
  • Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
- NEW -
Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
  • Low power consumption
  • Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
  • High speed operation
  • More efficient arithmetic operations
Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
  • Differential output capability
  • Lower distortion
  • Immune to damage from static discharge
  • Lower power consumption
Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
  • Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
  • The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
  • The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
  • Input signals are stronger
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
was E6C07
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for ana ANDNAND gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 6
was E6C09
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for ana ORNOR gate?
  • 21
  • 32
  • 43
  • 64
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
- NEW -
What is BiCMOS logic?
  • A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
  • An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
  • A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
  • An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
- NEW -
Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
  • Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
  • It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
  • It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
  • All of these choices are correct
Section E6D
Optical devices and toroids: vidicon and cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices (CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs); toroidsToroids: permeability,; core material,; selecting,; winding
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 16
REMOVED
How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon?
  • By varying the beam voltage
  • By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside the tube
  • By varying the beam current
  • By varying electromagnetic fields
REMOVED
If a cathode ray tube (CRT) is designed to operate with an anode voltage of 25,000 volts, what will happen if the anode voltage is increased to 35,000 volts?
  • The image size will decrease
  • The image size will increase
  • The image will become larger and brighter
  • There will be no apparent change
was E6D02
What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
  • The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
  • The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
  • The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
  • The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off
was E6D04
Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
  • The heater voltage
  • The anode voltage
  • The operating temperature
  • The operating frequency
was E6D05
Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
  • Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
  • It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
  • It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
  • It is used in a battery charger circuit
was E6D06
What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
  • It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
  • It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
  • It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
  • It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
was E6D07
What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
  • A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
  • A display thatusing uses a crystalline liquid towhich, changein theconjunction waywith lightpolarizing filters, becomes opaque when voltage is refractedapplied
  • A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
  • A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
was E6D08
What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor with a 10-turn winding?
  • CoreThermal load currentimpedance
  • Core resistanceResistance
  • Core reactivityReactivity
  • Core permeabilityPermeability
was E6D09
What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?
  • From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
  • From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
  • From approximately 100010 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
  • From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
was E6D10
What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?
  • Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeabilitiespermeability
  • Powdered-iron toroids generally havemaintain bettertheir temperaturecharacteristics stabilityat higher currents
  • Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
  • Powdered-iron toroids have thehigher highest power handling capacity
was E6D11
What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?
  • Electrolytic capacitors
  • Butterworth filters
  • Ferrite beads
  • Steel-core toroids
was E6D12
What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
  • Toroidal cores containconfine most of the magnetic field within the core material
  • Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
  • Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
  • Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
was E6D13
How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
  • 2 turns
  • 4 turns
  • 43 turns
  • 229 turns
was E6D14
How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
  • 35 turns
  • 13 turns
  • 79 turns
  • 141 turns
was E6D15
What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveswaveforms are to be displayed on the screen?
  • Electromagnetic
  • Tubular
  • Radar
  • Electrostatic
was E6D16
Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
  • It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
  • It can be used to make an audio delay line
  • It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
  • It samples and stores analog signals
was E6D17
What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?
  • They consume less power
  • They can display changes instantly
  • They are visible in all light conditions
  • They can be easily interchanged with other display devices
was E6D18
What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
  • Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilities
  • Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
  • Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
  • Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
Section E6E
Piezoelectric crystals and MMICSMMICs: quartz crystalscrystal (as used in oscillators and crystal filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs)
  • Removed questions: 7
  • New questions: 6
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of these filter bandwidths would be a good choice for use in a SSB radiotelephone transmitter?
  • 6 kHz at -6 dB
  • 2.4 kHz at -6 dB
  • 500 Hz at -6 dB
  • 15 kHz at -6 dB
REMOVED
Which of these filter bandwidths would be a good choice for use with standard double-sideband AM transmissions?
  • 1 kHz at -6 dB
  • 500 Hz at -6 dB
  • 6 kHz at -6 dB
  • 15 kHz at -6 dB
REMOVED
What technique is used to construct low-cost, high-performance crystal ladder filters?
  • Obtain a small quantity of custom-made crystals
  • Choose a crystal with the desired bandwidth and operating frequency to match a desired center frequency
  • Measure crystal bandwidth to ensure at least 20% coupling
  • Measure crystal frequencies and carefully select units with a frequency variation of less than 10% of the desired filter bandwidth
REMOVED
What is the typical noise figure of a monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifier?
  • Less than 1 dB
  • Approximately 3.5 to 6 dB
  • Approximately 8 to 10 dB
  • More than 20 dB
REMOVED
What type of amplifier device consists of a small pill-type package with an input lead, an output lead and 2 ground leads?
  • A junction field-effect transistor (JFET)
  • An operational amplifier integrated circuit (OAIC)
  • An indium arsenide integrated circuit (IAIC)
  • A monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)
REMOVED
What supply voltage do monolithic microwave integrated circuits (MMIC) amplifiers typically require?
  • 1 volt DC
  • 12 volts DC
  • 20 volts DC
  • 120 volts DC
REMOVED
What is the most common package for inexpensive monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC) amplifiers?
  • Beryllium oxide packages
  • Glass packages
  • Plastic packages
  • Ceramic packages
was E6E03
What is a crystal lattice filter?
  • A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
  • An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervals
  • A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals
  • A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
was E6E05
Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
  • The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
  • The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
  • The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
  • The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
was E6E06
What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
  • Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
  • Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field
  • The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
  • Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
was E6E07
What is the characteristicmost common input and output impedance of circuits inthat whichuse almost all MMICs are designed to work?
  • 50 ohms
  • 300 ohms
  • 450 ohms
  • 10 ohms
- NEW -
Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
  • 2 dB
  • -10 dB
  • 44 dBm
  • -20 dBm
- NEW -
What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
  • The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
  • Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
  • Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
  • Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
was E6E10
WhatWhich typicalof constructionthe techniquefollowing techniques is typically used whento buildingconstruct an amplifier for the microwave bands containing a monolithicMMIC-based microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)amplifier?
  • Ground-plane "ugly" construction
  • Microstrip construction
  • Point-to-point construction
  • Wave-soldering construction
was E6E11
How is thepower-supply operating bias voltage normally suppliedfurnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
  • Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
  • MMICs require no operating bias
  • Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
  • Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
- NEW -
Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
  • Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
  • Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
  • Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
  • Bias the crystal at a specified current
- NEW -
What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance representing electrode and stray capacitance
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
  • Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
- NEW -
Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
  • Silicon
  • Silicon nitride
  • Silicon dioxide
  • Gallium nitride
- NEW -
What is a "Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?
  • An automatic notch filter
  • A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
  • A special filter that emphasizes image responses
  • A filter that removes impulse noise
Section E6F
Optical components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects, photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators
  • Removed questions: 7
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of the following is an optoisolator?
  • An LED and a phototransistor
  • A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light
  • An LED and a capacitor
  • A P-N junction that develops an excess negative charge when exposed to light
REMOVED
What is an optical shaft encoder?
  • An array of neon or LED indicators whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel
  • An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel
  • An array of neon or LED indicators mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded pattern
  • An array of optocouplers mounted on a rotating wheel in a coded pattern
REMOVED
What characteristic of a crystalline solid will photoconductivity change?
  • The capacitance
  • The inductance
  • The specific gravity
  • The resistance
REMOVED
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when illuminated by visible light?
  • Potassium nitrate
  • Lead sulfide
  • Cadmium sulfide
  • Sodium chloride
REMOVED
Which material will exhibit the greatest photoconductive effect when illuminated by infrared light?
  • Potassium nitrate
  • Lead sulfide
  • Cadmium sulfide
  • Sodium chloride
REMOVED
What characteristic of optoisolators is often used in power supplies?
  • They have low impedance between the light source and the phototransistor
  • They have very high impedance between the light source and the phototransistor
  • They have low impedance between the light source and the LED
  • They have very high impedance between the light source and the LED
REMOVED
Which of the following types of photovoltaic cell has the highest efficiency?
  • Silicon
  • Silver iodide
  • Selenium
  • Gallium arsenide
What is photoconductivity?
  • The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
  • The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
  • The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
  • The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
  • It increases
  • It decreases
  • It stays the same
  • It becomes unstable
What is the most common configuration forof an optoisolator or optocoupler?
  • A lens and a photomultiplier
  • A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
  • An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
  • An LED and a phototransistor
- NEW -
What is the photovoltaic effect?
  • The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
  • The conversion of light to electrical energy
  • The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
  • The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
- NEW -
Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
  • A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
  • A device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
  • A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
  • A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.
was E6F09
Which of thethese following materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
  • A crystalline semiconductor
  • An ordinary metal
  • A heavy metal
  • A liquid semiconductor
- NEW -
What is a solid state relay?
  • A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
  • A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
  • A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
  • A passive delay line
was E6F11
WhatWhy characteristicare of optoisolators makesoften themused suitablein forconjunction use with asolid triac to form the solid-state equivalentcircuits ofwhen aswitching mechanical relay for a 120 V AC household circuitVAC?
  • Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
  • Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
  • Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and athe powercircuit circuitbeing switched
  • Optoisolators eliminate (isolate) the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
- NEW -
What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
  • The output RF power divided by the input dc power
  • The effective payback period
  • The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
  • The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
was E6F13
What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
  • Selenium
  • Silicon
  • Cadmium Sulfide
  • Copper oxide
was E6F14
Which of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
  • 0.1 V
  • 0.5 V
  • 1.5 V
  • 12 V
was E6F15
What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
  • Protons
  • Photons
  • Electrons
  • Holes
Subelement E7
PRACTICAL CIRCUITS
  • Removed questions: 14
  • New questions: 9
  • Updated questions: 23
  • Total questions: 124
Section E7A
Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
REMOVED
What logical operation does a NOR gate perform?
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output only when none of its inputs are logic "0"
WhatWhich of the following is a bistable circuit?
  • An "AND" gate
  • An "OR" gate
  • A flip-flop
  • A clock
How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a "T" flip-flop circuit?
  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Four
Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
  • An XOR gate
  • A flip-flop
  • An OR gate
  • A multiplexer
How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 8
Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two unstable states without an external clock?
  • Monostable multivibrator
  • J-K Flipflip-Flopflop
  • T Flipflip-Flopflop
  • Astable Multivibratormultivibrator
What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
  • It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original state
  • It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
  • It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
  • It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
What logical operation does ana ANDNAND gate perform?
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output only ifwhen all inputs are logic "10"
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output only ifwhen all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "10" at its output if onlysome onebut inputnot isall aof its inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "10" at its output ifonly when all inputs are logic "01"
was E7A09
What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
  • It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
was E7A11
What is a truth table?
  • A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
  • A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
  • A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
  • A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp
was E7A12
What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
  • Reverse Logic
  • Assertive Logic
  • Negative logic
  • Positive Logic
was E7A13
What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
  • Reverse Logic
  • Assertive Logic
  • Negative logic
  • Positive Logic
- NEW -
What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
  • A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
  • A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
  • A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
  • A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
- NEW -
What is a JK flip-flop?
  • A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
  • A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
  • A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
  • A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption
- NEW -
What is a D flip-flop?
  • A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
  • A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
  • A dynamic memory storage element
  • A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions
Section E7B
Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 21
REMOVED
Which class of amplifier, of the types shown, provides the highest efficiency?
  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class C
  • Class AB
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
  • More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
  • Exactly 180 degrees
  • The entire cycle
  • Less than 180 degrees
- NEW -
What is a Class D amplifier?
  • A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
  • A low power amplifier using a differential amplifier for improved linearity
  • An amplifier using drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
  • A frequency doubling amplifier
- NEW -
Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?
  • A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
  • A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
  • A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
  • A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity
was E7B03
Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?
  • Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
  • Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
  • At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
  • At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
was E7B04
What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in aan RF power amplifier?
  • Tune the stage for maximum SWR
  • Tune both the input and output for maximum power
  • Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
  • Use a phase inverter in the output filter
was E7B05
Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?
  • Push-push
  • Push-pull
  • Class C
  • Class AB
was E7B06
Which of the following is a likely result when a Class C rather than a class AB amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
  • IntermodulationReduced intermodulation products will be greatly reduced
  • OverallIncreased overall intelligibility will increase
  • PartSignal of the transmitted signal will be invertedinversion
  • TheSignal signaldistortion may become distorted and occupy excessive bandwidth
was E7B07
How can aan vacuum-tubeRF power amplifier be neutralized?
  • By increasing the griddriving drivepower
  • By reducing the griddriving drivepower
  • By feeding backa an180-degree out-of-phase componentportion of the output back to the input
  • By feeding back an in-phase component of the output back to the input
was E7B08
Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?
  • The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
  • The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
  • The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
  • The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
was E7B09
In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
  • Load resistors
  • Fixed bias
  • Self bias
  • Feedback
was E7B10
In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
  • Fixed bias
  • Emitter bypass
  • Output load resistor
  • Self bias
was E7B11
What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
  • Switching voltage regulator
  • Linear voltage regulator
  • Common emitter amplifier
  • Emitter follower amplifier
was E7B12
In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of R?
  • Emitter load
  • Fixed bias
  • Collector load
  • Voltage regulation
was E7B13
In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
  • Output coupling
  • Emitter bypass
  • Input coupling
  • Hum filtering
was E7B14
What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
  • Neutralization
  • Select transistors with high beta
  • Use degenerativea resistor in series with the emitter feedback
  • All of thethese abovechoices are correct