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Comparing 2016 Amateur Extra class pool with 2012 Amateur Extra class pool
  • Removed questions: 131
  • New questions: 142
  • Updated questions: 60
  • Previous Total questions: 700
  • Total questions: 712
Subelement E1
COMMISSION'S RULES
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 75
Section E1A
Operating Standards: frequency privileges; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
Which of the following describes the rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
  • Working DX is not permitted
  • Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
  • Operation is restricted to LSB
  • All of these choices are correct
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?
  • The exact upper band edge
  • 300 Hz below the upper band edge
  • 1 kHz below the upper band edge
  • 3 kHz below the upper band edge
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?
  • The exact lower band edge
  • 300 Hz above the lower band edge
  • 1 kHz above the lower band edge
  • 3 kHz above the lower band edge
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's calling CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?
  • Yes, because you were not the DX station initiatedcalling the contactCQ
  • Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
  • No, mythe sidebandssideband will extend beyond the band edge
  • No, USAU.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
  • Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
  • Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment
  • No, mythe sidebandssideband will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
  • No, USAU.S. stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
  • 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
  • 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
  • 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
  • 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
was E1B07
Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?
  • At the lowest frequency of the channel
  • At the center frequency of the channel
  • At the highest frequency of the channel
  • On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
WhatWhich is the only amateur band whererequires transmission on specific channels rather than on a range of frequencies is permitted?
  • 12 meter band
  • 17 meter band
  • 30 meter band
  • 60 meter band
If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
  • The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
  • The control operator of the originating station
  • The control operators of all the stations in the system
  • The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
  • Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
  • Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
  • Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
  • Discontinue forwarding all messages
If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
  • Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
  • The amateur station operator must agree not to not transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft radiosis are in use
  • ItThe amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
  • ItsThe amateur operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
WhatWhich of the following describes authorization or licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?
  • Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
  • Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien amateur licensee
  • Only General class or higher amateur licenses
  • An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?
  • Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
  • Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band segment
  • No, one of the sidebands fromof the CW signal will be out of the band.
  • No, USAU.S. stations are not permitted to use CW emissions below 3.525 MHz
Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
  • Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
  • Any person holding an FCC- issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
  • Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
  • Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
was E1B05
What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
  • 60 Hz
  • 170 Hz
  • 1.5 kHz
  • 2.8 kHz
Section E1B
Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions;, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations; national quiet zone
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
  • An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
  • A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
  • Any transmitted bogus signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station
  • An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted?
  • The location is near an area of political conflict
  • The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
  • The location is in an ITU zoneZone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments
  • The location is of environmental importance or significant in American history, architecture, or culture
Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
  • 1 mile
  • 3 miles
  • 10 miles
  • 30 miles
What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?
  • A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
  • A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society
  • An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
  • A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
was E1F06
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
  • An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the AriceboArecibo Radio Telescope
  • An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
  • An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
  • An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
  • You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
  • No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
  • You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
  • You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority
was E1B12
What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?
  • 0.5
  • 1.0
  • 2.0
  • 3.0
What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receiver(s)receivers involved are of good engineering design?
  • The amateur station must cease operation
  • The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
  • The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
  • The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
Which amateur stations may be operated inunder RACES rules?
  • Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military AffiliateAuxiliary Radio System (MARS)
What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station participatingoperating inunder RACES rules?
  • All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
  • Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
  • Specific local government channels
  • Military AffiliateAuxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
  • At least 43 dB below
  • At least 53 dB below
  • At least 63 dB below
  • At least 73 dB below
Section E1C
Station Control: Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications over automatically controlled stations
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?
  • Never
  • Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
  • When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
  • When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
What is a remotely controlled station?
  • A station operated away from its regular home location
  • A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
  • A station operating under automatic control
  • A station controlled indirectly through a control link
What is meant by automatic control of a station?
  • The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point
  • A station operating with its output power controlled automatically
  • Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link
  • The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
  • Under local control there is no control operator
  • Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
  • Under automatic control there is no control operator
  • Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
- NEW -
What is meant by IARP?
  • An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
  • The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
  • An indication of increased antenna reflected power
  • A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?
  • Never
  • Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions
  • When specifically agreed upon by the sending andor receiving stationsstation
  • When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
  • Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
  • A control operator need not be present at the control point
  • A control operator must be present at the control point
  • Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
What is meant by local control?
  • Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
  • Automatically manipulating local station controls
  • Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
  • Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
  • 30 seconds
  • 3 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • 10 minutes
Which of these ranges of frequencies areis available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
  • 18.110 MHz - 18.168 MHz
  • 24.940 MHz - 24.990 MHz
  • 10.100 MHz - 10.150 MHz
  • 29.500 MHz - 29.700 MHz
What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?
  • Only beacon, repeater or space stations
  • Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
  • Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
  • Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
was E1F02
Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed USU.S. citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?U.S.?
  • CEPT agreement
  • IARP agreement
  • ITU reciprocal license
  • All of these choices are correct
was E1F13
What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
  • Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
  • Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
  • Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
  • You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
  • The U.S. embassy must approve of your operation
  • You must bring a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 11-221
  • You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
Section E1D
Amateur Satellite servicesatellites: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 11
What is the definition of the term telemetry?
  • One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
  • Two-way radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
  • Two-way single channel transmissions of data
  • One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
What is the amateur satellite service?
  • A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs
  • A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
  • A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
  • A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?
  • An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communicationscommunication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
  • An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
  • An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface
  • An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
  • An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
  • An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
  • An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space
  • Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?
  • All except Technician Class
  • Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
  • AllAny classesclass with appropriate operator privileges
  • Only Amateur Extra Class
Which of the following specialis provisions must a spacerequirement stationof incorporatea in order to comply with space station requirements?
  • The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
  • The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
  • The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
  • All of these choices are correct
Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized tofor space stations?
  • Only 40mthe 40 m, 20m20 m, 17m17 m, 15m15 m, 12m12 m and 10m10 m bands
  • Only 40mthe 40 m, 20m20 m, 17m17 m, 15m15 m and 10m10 m bands
  • 40mOnly the 40 m, 30m30 m, 20m20 m, 15m15 m, 12m12 m and 10m10 m bands
  • All HF bands
Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?
  • 6 meters and 2 meters
  • 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
  • 2 meters and 1.25 meters
  • 2 meters
- NEW -
Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?
  • 70 cm only
  • 70 cm and 13 cm
  • 70 cm and 33 cm
  • 33 cm and 13 cm
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
  • Any amateur station designated by NASA
  • Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
  • Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
  • All of these choices are correct
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
  • Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
  • Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Section E1E
Volunteer examiner program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC?
  • The licensee's license will be cancelled
  • The person may be fined or imprisoned
  • The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
  • All these choices are correct
What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination?
  • 5
  • 2
  • 4
  • 3
Where are the questions for all written USU.S. amateur license examinations listed?
  • In FCC Part 97
  • In a question pool maintained by the FCC
  • In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
  • In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
  • A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
  • A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations
  • An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations
  • The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?
  • Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
  • The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
  • The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
  • The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
  • Minimum passing score of 70%
  • Minimum passing score of 74%
  • Minimum passing score of 80%
  • Minimum passing score of 77%
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
  • The VEC coordinating the session
  • The FCC
  • Each administering VE
  • The VE session manager
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
  • Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
  • Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
  • Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
  • Immediately terminate everyoneseveryone's examination and close the session
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
  • Employees of the VE
  • Friends of the VE
  • Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
  • All of these choices are correct
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
  • Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
  • A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
  • A sentence of up to one year in prison
  • All of these choices are correct
What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
  • They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
  • They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
  • They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
  • They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
  • Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
  • Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
  • Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
  • All these choices are correct
What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
  • Return the application document to the examinee
  • Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
  • Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
  • Destroy the application form
- NEW -
Which of these choices is an acceptable method for monitoring the applicants if a VEC opts to conduct an exam session remotely?
  • Record the exam session on video tape for later review by the VE team
  • Use a real-time video link and the Internet to connect the exam session to the observing VEs
  • The exam proctor observes the applicants and reports any violations
  • Have each applicant sign an affidavit stating that all session rules were followed
For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
  • Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
  • Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
  • No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
  • Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
Section E1F
Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 12
On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
- NEW -
What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the Government of Canada?
  • None, they must obtain a U.S. license
  • All privileges of the Extra Class license
  • The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Extra Class privileges
  • Full privileges, up to and including those of the Extra Class License, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
  • It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
  • The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
  • It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
  • It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
  • A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-U.S.-Canadian border
  • A line roughly parallel to and west of the USU.S. Atlantic coastline
  • A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-U.S.-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
  • A line roughly parallel to and east of the USU.S. Pacific coastline
Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
  • 440 MHz - 450 MHz
  • 53 MHz - 54 MHz
  • 222 MHz - 223 MHz
  • 420 MHz - 430 MHz
was E1F14
Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station?
  • To provide for experimental amateur communications
  • To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels
  • To provide additional spectrum for personal use
  • To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
  • When the total money involved does not exceed $25
  • When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
  • When transmitting international third-party communications
  • When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
  • Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
  • Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
  • Communications that have a religious content
  • Communications in a language other than English
Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
  • A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
  • The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
  • The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
  • All of these choices are correct
What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?
  • 1 W
  • 1.5 W
  • 10 W
  • 1.5 kW
Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
  • It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
  • It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
  • It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
  • It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
  • Any licensed amateur operator
  • Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
  • Only Amateur Extra Class operators
Subelement E2
OPERATING PROCEDURES
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 9
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 73
Section E2A
Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations; experimental telemetry applications
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 14
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
  • From west to east
  • From east to west
  • From south to north
  • From north to south
What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?
  • From north to south
  • From west to east
  • From east to west
  • From south to north
What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
  • The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
  • The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit
  • The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
  • The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
  • The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
  • The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
  • The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
  • Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
  • Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
  • The location of the ground control station
  • The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
  • The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
  • 435 MHz - 438 MHz
  • 144 MHz - 146 MHz
  • 50.0 MHz - 50.2 MHz
  • 29.5 toMHz - 29.7 MHz
Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
  • FM and CW
  • SSB and SSTV
  • PSK and Packet
  • All of these choices are correct
Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
  • To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
  • To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
  • To prevent the satellite from emitting out -of -band signals
  • To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
  • The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
  • The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
  • FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems
  • Which sideband to use
Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect?
  • Because the satellite is spinning
  • Because of ionospheric absorption
  • Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
  • Because of the Doppler Effect
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
  • A linearly polarized antenna
  • A circularly polarized antenna
  • An isotropic antenna
  • A log-periodic dipole array
What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
  • By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite
  • By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
  • By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination
  • By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
  • HEO
  • Geostationary
  • Geomagnetic
  • LEO
- NEW -
What technology is used to track, in real time, balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?
  • Radar
  • Bandwidth compressed LORAN
  • APRS
  • Doppler shift of beacon signals
Section E2B
Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 19
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
  • 30
  • 60
  • 525
  • 1080
How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  • By scanning two fields simultaneously
  • By scanning each field from bottom to top
  • By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
  • By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered oneslines in the next
What is blanking in a video signal?
  • Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
  • Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
  • Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission
  • Transmitting a black and white test pattern
Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV transmissions?
  • The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
  • The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
  • Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
  • Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
What is vestigial sideband modulation?
  • Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
  • A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
  • Narrow-band FM transmissionmodulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
  • Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
  • Luminance
  • Chroma
  • Hue
  • Spectral Intensity
Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television?
  • Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
  • A separate VHF or UHF audio link
  • Frequency modulation of the video carrier
  • All of these choices are correct
What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
  • A special IF converter
  • A special front end limiter
  • A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
  • No other hardware is needed
Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
  • 3 KHz
  • 10 KHz
  • 15 KHz
  • 20 KHz
What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmittedsent as part of an SSTV transmission?
  • To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
  • To identify the SSTV mode being used
  • To provide vertical synchronization
  • To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
  • Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation
  • Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
  • Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
  • Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
How many lines are commonly used in each frame onof an amateur slow-scan color television picture?
  • 30 toor 60
  • 60 or 100
  • 128 or 256
  • 180 or 360
What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
  • Tone frequency
  • Tone amplitude
  • Sync amplitude
  • Sync frequency
What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line?
  • Specific tone frequencies
  • Elapsed time
  • Specific tone amplitudes
  • A two-tone signal
Which of the following is thea video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
  • PAL
  • DRM
  • Scottie
  • NTSC
What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal?
  • 600 Hz
  • 3 kHz
  • 2 MHz
  • 6 MHz
On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV transmissions?
  • 14.230 MHz
  • 29.6 MHz
  • 52.525 MHz
  • 1255 MHz
What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
  • None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
  • They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz
  • They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
  • They are not permitted above 54 MHz
Section E2C
Operating methods: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrumremote transmissionsoperation techniques; selectingCabrillo anformat; operatingQSLing; frequencyRF network connected systems
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?
  • 3.525 MHz
  • 14.020 MHz
  • 28.330 MHz
  • 146.52 MHz
Which of the following is true about contest operating?
  • Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
  • Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable
  • It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
  • Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange
Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in regards to HF contest operating?
  • The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network
  • The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network
  • A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
  • An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
  • 30 metersm
  • 6 metersm
  • 2 metersm
  • 33 cm
- NEW -
What type of transmission is most often used for a ham radio mesh network?
  • Spread spectrum in the 2.4 GHz band
  • Multiple Frequency Shift Keying in the 10 GHz band
  • Store and forward on the 440 MHz band
  • Frequency division multiplex in the 24 GHz band
What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
  • To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
  • To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
  • To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
  • To relay calls to and from a DX station
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity?
  • At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
  • In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
  • In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
  • In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
What is the Cabrillo format?
  • A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
  • A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
  • The most common set of contest rules
  • The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
- NEW -
Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?
  • Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
  • Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
  • Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
  • Contacts using tactical call signs
- NEW -
What type of equipment is commonly used to implement a ham radio mesh network?
  • A 2 meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 baud modem
  • An optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
  • A standard wireless router running custom software
  • A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 baud modem
Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?
  • Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
  • To separate the calling stations from the DX station
  • To reduceimprove interference,operating therebyefficiency improvingby operatingreducing efficiencyinterference
  • All of these choices are correct
How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station workingduring a pileupcontest or in a contestpileup?
  • Send your full call sign once or twice
  • Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
  • Send your full call sign and grid square
  • Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is,", then your call sign three times
What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
  • Switch to a higher frequency HF band
  • Switch to a lower frequency HF band
  • Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
  • Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
- NEW -
What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control where the transmitter is located in the U.S.?
  • / followed by the USPS two letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
  • /R# where # is the district of the remote station
  • The ARRL section of the remote station
  • No additional indicator is required
Section E2D
Operating methods: VHF and UHF digital modes and procedures; APRS; EME procedures, meteor scatter procedures
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What is the definition of baud?
  • The number of data symbols transmitted per second
  • The number of characters transmitted per second
  • The number of characters transmitted per minute
  • The number of words transmitted per minute
REMOVED
Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency?
  • 144.39 MHz
  • 144.20 MHz
  • 145.02 MHz
  • 146.52 MHz
Which of the following digital modes is especially designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
  • WSPR
  • FSK441
  • Hellschreiber
  • APRS
was E3A10
Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor- scatter contacts?
  • 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
  • Use of high speed CW or digital modes
  • Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
  • FSK441
  • PACTOR III
  • Olivia
  • JT65
What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur Radio satellite?
  • To upload operational software for the transponder
  • To delay download of telemetry between satellites
  • To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
  • To relay messages between satellites
Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
  • Digipeating
  • Store-and-forward
  • Multi-satellite relaying
  • Node hopping
was E3A05
Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
  • Time synchronous transmissions withalternately from each station alternating
  • Storing and forwarding digital messages
  • Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the Moon
  • High speed CW identification to avoid fading
WhichWhat of the following digital protocolsprotocol is used by APRS?
  • PACTOR
  • 802.11
  • AX.25
  • AMTOR
WhichWhat oftype the following types of packet framesframe is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
  • Unnumbered Information
  • Disconnect
  • Acknowledgement
  • Connect
UnderWhich clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?
  • AMTOR
  • 170- Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
  • PSK31
  • 300- baud packet
How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
  • An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
  • APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
  • An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?
  • Polar coordinates
  • Time and frequency
  • Radio direction finding LOPsspectrum analysis
  • Latitude and longitude
How does JT65 improve EME communications?
  • It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
  • It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
  • It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?
  • Multi-tone AFSK
  • PSK
  • RTTY
  • IEEE 802.11
was E8C13
What is one advantage of using JT-65JT65 coding?
  • Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
  • The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
  • Easily copied by ear if necessary
  • Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
Section E2E
Operating methods: operating HF digital modes; error correction
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 13
Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
  • DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
  • FSK
  • Pulse modulation
  • Spread spectrum
What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
  • Forward Error Correction
  • First Error Correction
  • Fatal Error Correction
  • Final Error Correction
- NEW -
How is the timing of JT65 contacts organized?
  • By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
  • Stations take turns on alternate days
  • Alternating transmissions at 1 minute intervals
  • It depends on the lunar phase
What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
  • Selective fading has occurred
  • One of the signal filters hasis saturated
  • The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
  • The mark and space signal have been inverted
was E2E12
Which type of digital communicationmode does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
  • Winlink
  • RTTY
  • PSK31
  • MFSK
What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?
  • 48 baud
  • 110 baud
  • 300 baud
  • 1200 baud
What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
  • 31 Hz
  • 316 Hz
  • 550 Hz
  • 2.16 kHz
Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
  • Hellschreiber
  • PACTOR
  • RTTY
  • AMTOR
Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?
  • RTTY
  • PACTOR
  • MT63
  • PSK31
Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
  • MFSK16
  • 170- Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
  • PSK31
  • 300-baud packet
What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
  • Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
  • Audio FSK has a superior frequency response
  • Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data connection
  • Audio FSK can be performed anywhere in the transmit chain
- NEW -
Which type of control is used by stations using the Automatic Link Enable (ALE) protocol?
  • Local
  • Remote
  • Automatic
  • ALE can use any type of control
- NEW -
Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?
  • Your transmit frequency is incorrect
  • The protocol version you are using is not the supported by the digital station
  • Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
  • All of these choices are correct
Subelement E3
RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION
  • Removed questions: 11
  • New questions: 23
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 46
Section E3A
PropagationElectromagnetic andwaves; technique: Earth-Moon-Earth communications; (EME), meteor scatter; microwave tropospheric and scatter propagation; aurora propagation
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 6
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
  • Equipment with very wide bandwidth
  • Equipment with very low dynamic range
  • Equipment with very low gain
  • Equipment with very low noise figures
REMOVED
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
  • 144.000 - 144.001 MHz
  • 144.000 - 144.100 MHz
  • 144.100 - 144.300 MHz
  • 145.000 - 145.100 MHz
REMOVED
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 70 cm band?
  • 430.000 - 430.150 MHz
  • 430.100 - 431.100 MHz
  • 431.100 - 431.200 MHz
  • 432.000 - 432.100 MHz
What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?
  • 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
  • 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
  • 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
  • 12,000 miles, asif longthe asMoon bothis canvisible "see"by theboth Moonstations
What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-EarthEME signal?
  • A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
  • A fluttery irregular fading
  • A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
  • The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
  • When the Moon is at perigee
  • When the Moon is full
  • When the Moon is at apogee
  • When the MUF is above 30 MHz
- NEW -
What do Hepburn maps predict?
  • Sporadic E propagation
  • Locations of auroral reflecting zones
  • Likelihood of rain-scatter along cold or warm fronts
  • Probability of tropospheric propagation
- NEW -
Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs along what weather related structure?
  • Gray-line
  • Lightning discharges
  • Warm and cold fronts
  • Sprites and jets
- NEW -
Which of the following is required for microwave propagation via rain scatter?
  • Rain droplets must be electrically charged
  • Rain droplets must be within the E layer
  • The rain must be within radio range of both stations
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?
  • Mountain ranges
  • Forests
  • Bodies of water
  • Urban areas
When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
  • The E layer
  • The F1 layer
  • The F2 layer
  • The D layer
Which of the following frequency rangesrange is wellmost suited for meteor- scatter communications?
  • 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
  • 10 MHz - 14 MHz
  • 28 MHz - 148 MHz
  • 220 MHz - 450 MHz
- NEW -
Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?
  • The jet stream
  • Temperature inversion
  • Wind shear
  • Dust devil
- NEW -
What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?
  • 10 miles to 50 miles
  • 100 miles to 300 miles
  • 1200 miles
  • 2500 miles
was E3C02
What is the cause of Auroraauroral activity?
  • The interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
  • A low sunspot level combined with tropospheric ducting
  • The interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and the ionosphere
  • Meteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
was E3C04
Which emission mode is best for Auroraaurora propagation?
  • CW
  • SSB
  • FM
  • RTTY
was E3C11
From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?
  • South
  • North
  • East
  • West
was E8D07
What is an electromagnetic wave?
  • AlternatingA currentswave of alternating current, in the core of an electromagnet
  • A wave consisting of two electric fields at parallel right angles to each other
  • A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
  • A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
was E8D08
Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
  • Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
  • The energy propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
  • The waves are reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
  • Changing electric and magnetic fields propagate the energy
was E8D09
What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
  • Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
  • Waves with a rotating electric field
  • Waves that circle the Earth
  • Waves produced by a loop antenna
Section E3B
PropagationTransequatorial andpropagation; technique: trans-equatorial, long path,; gray-line; multi-path; propagationordinary and extraordinary waves; chordal hop, sporadic E mechanisms
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 6
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals?
  • Long-path
  • Sporadic-E
  • Transequatorial
  • Auroral
REMOVED
At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
  • At sunrise and sunset
  • When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station
  • When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
  • When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
REMOVED
Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
  • Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
  • Over the horizon propagation on the 6 and 2 meter bands
  • Long distance communications at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
  • Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands
What is transequatorial propagation?
  • Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between two stations at the same latitude
What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
  • 1000 miles
  • 2500 miles
  • 5000 miles
  • 7500 miles
What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?
  • Morning
  • Noon
  • Afternoon or early evening
  • Late at night
- NEW -
What is meant by the terms extraordinary and ordinary waves?
  • Extraordinary waves describe rare long skip propagation compared to ordinary waves which travel shorter distances
  • Independent waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
  • Long path and short path waves
  • Refracted rays and reflected waves
Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
  • 160 meters to 40 meters
  • 30 meters to 10 meters
  • 160 meters to 10 meters
  • 6 meters to 2 meters
Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?
  • 80 meters
  • 20 meters
  • 10 meters
  • 6 meters
Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?
  • High D layer absorption
  • Meteor scatter
  • Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
  • Receipt of a signal by more than one path
What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
  • Transequatorial
  • Sporadic-E
  • Long-path
  • Gray-line
- NEW -
At what time of year is Sporadic E propagation most likely to occur?
  • Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
  • Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
  • Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
  • Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
What is the cause of gray-line propagation?
  • At midday, the Sun beingsuper directlyheats overhead superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves
  • At twilight and sunrise, D-layer absorption dropsis low while E-layer and F-layer propagation remainremains stronghigh
  • In darkness, solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
  • At mid -afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
- NEW -
At what time of day is Sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
  • Around sunset
  • Around sunrise
  • Early evening
  • Any time
- NEW -
What is the primary characteristic of chordal hop propagation?
  • Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
  • Successive ionospheric reflections without an intermediate reflection from the ground
  • Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
  • Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
- NEW -
Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?
  • The signal experiences less loss along the path compared to normal skip propagation
  • The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
  • Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
  • Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
- NEW -
What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?
  • They are bent toward the magnetic poles
  • Their polarization is randomly modified
  • They become elliptically polarized
  • They become phase-locked
Section E3C
Propagation and technique: Aurora propagation selective fading; radioRadio-path horizon; take-offless anglecommon overpropagation flatmodes; orpropagation slopingprediction terrain;techniques effectsand ofmodeling; groundspace onweather propagation;parameters lessand commonamateur propagation modesradio
  • Removed questions: 5
  • New questions: 11
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
Which of the following effects does Aurora activity have on radio communications?
  • SSB signals are raspy
  • Signals propagating through the Aurora are fluttery
  • CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
  • All of these choices are correct
REMOVED
Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?
  • In the F1-region
  • In the F2-region
  • In the D-region
  • In the E-region
REMOVED
Which of the following describes selective fading?
  • Variability of signal strength with beam heading
  • Partial cancellation of some frequencies within the received pass band
  • Sideband inversion within the ionosphere
  • Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
REMOVED
What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?
  • Oblique-angle ray
  • Pedersen ray
  • Ordinary ray
  • Heaviside ray
REMOVED
Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?
  • D-region absorption
  • Faraday rotation
  • Tropospheric ducting
  • Ground wave
- NEW -
What does the term ray tracing describe in regard to radio communications?
  • The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern
  • Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
  • Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
  • Evaluating high voltage sources for X-Rays
- NEW -
What is indicated by a rising A or K index?
  • Increasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
  • Decreasing disruption of the geomagnetic field
  • Higher levels of solar UV radiation
  • An increase in the critical frequency
- NEW -
Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A index or K index is elevated?
  • Transequatorial propagation
  • Polar paths
  • Sporadic-E
  • NVIS
- NEW -
What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?
  • Geomagnetic field stability
  • Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
  • Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
  • Duration of long-delayed echoes
- NEW -
What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incoming particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?
  • Southward
  • Northward
  • Eastward
  • Westward
By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
  • By approximately 15% percent of the distance
  • By approximately twice the distance
  • By approximately one-half50 percent of the distance
  • By approximately four times the distance
- NEW -
Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?
  • Class A
  • Class B
  • Class M
  • Class X
- NEW -
What does the space weather term G5 mean?
  • An extreme geomagnetic storm
  • Very low solar activity
  • Moderate solar wind
  • Waning sunspot numbers
- NEW -
How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?
  • 10 percent greater
  • 50 percent greater
  • Twice as great
  • Four times as great
- NEW -
What does the 304A solar parameter measure?
  • The ratio of X-Ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
  • UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to solar flux index
  • The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
  • The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-Ray flare levels
- NEW -
What does VOACAP software model?
  • AC voltage and impedance
  • VHF radio propagation
  • HF propagation
  • AC current and impedance
How does the maximum distance of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
  • It stays the same
  • It increases
  • It decreases
  • It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
  • Vertical
  • Horizontal
  • Circular
  • Elliptical
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
  • E-region skip
  • D-region skip
  • Downward bending due to aurora refraction
  • Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
- NEW -
What might a sudden rise in radio background noise indicate?
  • A meteor ping
  • A solar flare has occurred
  • Increased transequatorial propagation likely
  • Long-path propagation is occurring
Subelement E4
AMATEUR PRACTICES
  • Removed questions: 9
  • New questions: 16
  • Updated questions: 7
  • Total questions: 79
Section E4A
Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testingRF transistorsmeasurements; RFcomputer aided measurements
  • Removed questions: 7
  • New questions: 7
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
How does a spectrum analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
  • A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
  • A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals
  • A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
  • A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
REMOVED
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
  • SWR
  • Q
  • Time
  • Frequency
REMOVED
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
  • Amplitude
  • Duration
  • SWR
  • Q
REMOVED
Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
  • A spectrum analyzer
  • A wattmeter
  • A logic analyzer
  • A time-domain reflectometer
REMOVED
Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
  • The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
  • Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
  • The spectral output of a transmitter
  • All of these choices are correct
REMOVED
Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?
  • Transmit into a dummy load, receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
  • Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the average power output
  • Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate isolation to prevent damage to the meter
  • All of these choices are correct
REMOVED
Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?
  • Dip meter
  • Oscilloscope
  • Ohmmeter
  • Q meter
- NEW -
Which of the following parameter determines the bandwidth of a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?
  • Input capacitance
  • Input impedance
  • Sampling rate
  • Sample resolution
- NEW -
Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?
  • RF amplitude and time
  • RF amplitude and frequency
  • SWR and frequency
  • SWR and time
was E4A05
Which of the following test instrumentsinstrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmissiontransmitter?
  • A wattmeter
  • A spectrum analyzer
  • A logic analyzer
  • A time-domain reflectometer
- NEW -
What determines the upper frequency limit for a computer soundcard-based oscilloscope program?
  • Analog-to-digital conversion speed of the soundcard
  • Amount of memory on the soundcard
  • Q of the interface of the interface circuit
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
What might be an advantage of a digital vs an analog oscilloscope?
  • Automatic amplitude and frequency numerical readout
  • Storage of traces for future reference
  • Manipulation of time base after trace capture
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is the effect of aliasing in a digital or computer-based oscilloscope?
  • False signals are displayed
  • All signals will have a DC offset
  • Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
  • False triggering occurs
Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?
  • Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
  • Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
  • Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following instrumentsinstrument would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
  • A spectrum analyzer
  • A Q meter
  • An ohmmeter
  • An antenna analyzer
- NEW -
When using a computer's soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?
  • The same as the sample rate
  • One-half the sample rate
  • One-tenth the sample rate
  • It depends on how the data is stored internally
- NEW -
Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?
  • Network analyzer
  • Bit error rate tester
  • Modulation monitor
  • Logic analyzer
was E4B07
Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
  • Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
  • Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
  • Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?
  • Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
  • Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer
  • Match the antenna to the load
  • All of these choices are correct
was E4B13
How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
  • A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
  • A high frequency sine wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
  • A frequency standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
  • A DC voltage standard is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
was E7F01
What is the purpose of athe prescaler circuitfunction on a frequency counter?
  • It convertsamplifies thelow outputlevel ofsignals afor JKmore flipaccurate flop to that of an RS flip-flopcounting
  • It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
  • It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
  • It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
was E7F11
What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?
  • It can run on battery power for remote measurements
  • It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
  • It provides improved resolution of low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
  • It can directly measure the modulation index of an FM transmitter
Section E4B
Measurement techniquestechnique and limitations: Instrumentinstrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q;"; instrument calibration; S parameters; vector network analyzers
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 146.52 Hz
  • 10 Hz
  • 146.52 kHz
  • 1465.20 Hz
Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
  • Input attenuator accuracy
  • Time base accuracy
  • Decade divider accuracy
  • Temperature coefficient of the logic
What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
  • It provides an excellent match under all conditions
  • It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source
  • TheIt measurement is basedvery onprecise in obtaining a signal null, which can be done very precisely
  • It can display results directly in Smith chart format
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 165.2 Hz
  • 14.652 kHz
  • 146.52 Hz
  • 1.4652 MHz
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 14.652 Hz
  • 0.1 MHz
  • 1.4652 Hz
  • 1.4652 kHz
was E4B03
If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.010 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
  • 165146.252 Hz
  • 14.65210 kHzHz
  • 146.52 HzkHz
  • 11465.465220 MHzHz
How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
  • 100 watts
  • 125 watts
  • 25 watts
  • 75 watts
- NEW -
What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?
  • The port or ports at which measurements are made
  • The relative time between measurements
  • Relative quality of the data
  • Frequency order of the measurements
Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
  • High reluctance input
  • Low reluctance input
  • High impedance input
  • Low impedance input
What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
  • There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
  • The transmitter is not properly neutralized
  • There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
  • There is more power going into the antenna
Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
  • Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
  • Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
  • Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
  • Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
How should aan portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
  • Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
  • Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
  • ConnectLoosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
  • Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
  • The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per /volt rating will provideindicate the input impedance of the voltmeter
  • When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
  • When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
  • When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
- NEW -
Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?
  • S11
  • S12
  • S21
  • S22
What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
  • Harmonics are generated
  • A less accurate reading results
  • Cross modulation occurs
  • Intermodulation distortion occurs
Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?
  • The inductance to capacitance ratio
  • The frequency shift
  • The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
  • The resonant frequency of the circuit
- NEW -
Which S parameter represents return loss or SWR?
  • S11
  • S12
  • S21
  • S22
- NEW -
What three test loads are used to calibrate a standard RF vector network analyzer?
  • 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
  • Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
  • Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
  • 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
Section E4C
Receiver performance characteristics:, phase noise;, capture effect; noise floor;, image rejection;, MDS;, signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity; effects of SDR receiver non-linearity
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?
  • It would reduce the signal to noise ratio
  • It would improve weak signal sensitivity
  • It would reduce bandwidth
  • It would increase bandwidth
What is an effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
  • It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
  • It reduces receiver sensitivity
  • It decreases receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
  • It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals
Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?
  • A front-end filter or pre-selector
  • A narrow IF filter
  • A notch filter
  • A properly adjusted product detector
What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
  • Desensitization
  • Cross-modulation interference
  • Capture effect
  • Frequency discrimination
WhatHow is the definition of the noise figure of a receiver defined?
  • The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
  • The ratio of the noise bandwidth in Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
  • The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise
  • The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise
What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
  • The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
  • The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
  • The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
  • The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
  • -174 dBm
  • -164 dBm
  • -155 dBm
  • -148 dBm
What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
  • The meter display sensitivity
  • The minimum discernible signal
  • The multiplex distortion stability
  • The maximum detectable spectrum
- NEW -
An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?
  • One-half the maximum sample rate
  • One-half the maximum sampling buffer size
  • The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
  • The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
  • Fewer components in the receiver
  • Reduced drift
  • Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
  • Improved receiver noise figure
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
  • 100 Hz
  • 300 Hz
  • 6000 Hz
  • 2400 Hz
Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone receiver?
  • 1 kHz
  • 2.4 kHz
  • 4.2 kHz
  • 4.8 kHz
What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
  • Output-offset overshoot
  • Filter ringing
  • Thermal-noise distortion
  • Undesired signals may be heard
How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
  • It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
  • It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
  • It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
  • All of these choices are correct
OnWhat whichtransmit offrequency the following frequencies might agenerate signalan beimage transmittingresponse which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
  • 13.845 MHz
  • 14.755 MHz
  • 14.445 MHz
  • 15.210 MHz
What is usually the primary source of noise that canis be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?
  • Detector noise
  • Induction motor noise
  • Receiver front-end noise
  • Atmospheric noise
- NEW -
Which of the following is caused by missing codes in an SDR receiver's analog-to-digital converter?
  • Distortion
  • Overload
  • Loss of sensitivity
  • Excess output level
- NEW -
Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's linearity?
  • CPU register width in bits
  • Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
  • RAM speed used for data storage
  • Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
Section E4D
Receiver performance characteristics: blocking dynamic range; intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselectionpreselector
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 14
What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
  • The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression
  • The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other
  • The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
  • The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
Which of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver?
  • Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
  • Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
  • Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
  • Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
  • When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
  • When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
  • When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
  • When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?
  • A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
  • A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
  • A Class C final amplifier
  • A Class D final amplifier
What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
  • 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
  • 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
  • 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
  • 173.35 MHz and 139.40 MHz
What is the term for unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?
  • Amplifier desensitization
  • Neutralization
  • Adjacent channel interference
  • Intermodulation interference
Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
  • A large increase in background noise
  • A reduction in apparent signal strength
  • The desired signal can no longer be heard
  • The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
  • Too little gain
  • Lack of neutralization
  • Nonlinear circuits or devices
  • Positive feedback
What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
  • To store often-used frequencies
  • To provide a range of AGC time constants
  • To increase rejection of unwanted signals
  • To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
  • Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
  • The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
  • A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product with the same level as the input signals
  • A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
Why are third-order intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products?
  • The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within the band
  • The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders
  • Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
  • Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
  • Desensitization
  • Quieting
  • Cross-modulation interference
  • Squelch gain rollback
Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?
  • Audio gain adjusted too low
  • Strong adjacent- channel signals
  • Audio bias adjusted too high
  • Squelch gain misadjusted
Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
  • Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
  • Raise the receiver IF frequency
  • Increase the receiver front end gain
  • Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
Section E4E
Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers; grounding for signals
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 16
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?
  • Ignition noise
  • Broadband white noise
  • Heterodyne interference
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
  • Broadband white noise
  • Ignition noise
  • Power line noise
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
  • Signals which are constant at all IF levels
  • Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
  • Signals which appear at one IF but not another
  • Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
  • By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead
  • By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
  • By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
  • By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?
  • By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
  • By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads
  • By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
  • By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
What is a major cause of atmospheric static?
  • Solar radio frequency emissions
  • Thunderstorms
  • Geomagnetic storms
  • Meteor showers
How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?
  • By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
  • By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
  • By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio
  • By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
  • A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter
  • An electrical-sparking signal
  • A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
  • Harmonics of the AC power line frequency
What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
  • Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
  • The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
  • Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
  • FM signals can no longer be demodulated
What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
  • The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a SSB or CW receiver
  • The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
  • The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band
  • All of these choices are correct
Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
  • The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
  • Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
  • You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
  • Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?
  • TheA DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals
  • Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
  • Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
  • Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?
  • Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
  • A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
  • A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
  • All of these choices are correct
What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer?
  • A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
  • A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
  • The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
  • A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on
- NEW -
Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?
  • Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
  • Common mode currents on the shield and conductors
  • Use of braided shielding material
  • Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential mode currents in the shield
- NEW -
What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?
  • Differential-mode current
  • Common-mode current
  • Reactive current only
  • Return current
Subelement E5
ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
  • Removed questions: 27
  • New questions: 21
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 65
Section E5A
Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits;: series and parallel resonance; definitions and effects of Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits
  • Removed questions: 5
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit at resonance?
  • The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
  • The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
  • The voltage and current are in phase
  • The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
REMOVED
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
  • 18.9 kHz
  • 1.89 kHz
  • 94.5 kHz
  • 9.45 kHz
REMOVED
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
  • 38.1 kHz
  • 76.2 kHz
  • 1.332 kHz
  • 2.665 kHz
REMOVED
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
  • 3.76 MHz
  • 1.78 MHz
  • 11.18 MHz
  • 22.36 MHz
REMOVED
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
  • 10.1 MHz
  • 63.2 MHz
  • 10.1 kHz
  • 63.2 kHz
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?
  • Resonance
  • Capacitance
  • Conductance
  • Resistance
What is resonance in an electrical circuit?
  • The highest frequency that will pass current
  • The lowest frequency that will pass current
  • The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
  • The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
  • High, as compared to the circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
  • Approximately equal to inductive reactance
  • Approximately equal to circuit resistance
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
  • Approximately equal to circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to inductive reactance
  • Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through resonance?
  • Minimum
  • Maximum
  • R/L
  • L/R
What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
  • It is at a minimum
  • It is at a maximum
  • It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
  • It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency, "F", multiplied by inductance "L"
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
  • Minimum
  • Maximum
  • R/L
  • L/R
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
  • The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
  • The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
  • The voltage and current are in phase
  • The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
- NEW -
How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
  • Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
  • Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
- NEW -
How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance times the resistance
  • Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
  • Reactance of the inductance times the reactance of the capacitance
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
  • 157.8 Hz
  • 315.6 Hz
  • 47.3 kHz
  • 23.67 kHz
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
  • 436.6 kHz
  • 218.3 kHz
  • 31.4 kHz
  • 15.7 kHz
- NEW -
What is an effect of increasing Q in a resonant circuit?
  • Fewer components are needed for the same performance
  • Parasitic effects are minimized
  • Internal voltages and circulating currents increase
  • Phase shift can become uncontrolled
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
  • 44.72 MHz
  • 22.36 MHz
  • 3.56 MHz
  • 1.78 MHz
- NEW -
Which of the following can increase Q for inductors and capacitors?
  • Lower losses
  • Lower reactance
  • Lower self-resonant frequency
  • Higher self-resonant frequency
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
  • 23.5 MHz
  • 23.5 kHz
  • 7.12 kHz
  • 7.12 MHz
- NEW -
What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?
  • Matching bandwidth is decreased
  • Matching bandwidth is increased
  • Matching range is increased
  • It has no effect on impedance matching
Section E5B
Time constants and phase relationships: RLC time constants; definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series RLC; phase angle of inductance vs susceptance; admittance and parallel circuitssusceptance
  • Removed questions: 5
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants?
  • 86.5%
  • 63.2%
  • 36.8%
  • 13.5%
REMOVED
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?
  • 0.02 seconds
  • 0.04 seconds
  • 20 seconds
  • 40 seconds
REMOVED
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it?
  • 4.50 seconds
  • 9 seconds
  • 450 seconds
  • 900 seconds
REMOVED
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
REMOVED
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?
  • 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
  • An exponential rate of one
  • One time constant
  • One exponential period
  • A time factor of one
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
  • One discharge period
  • An exponential discharge rate of one
  • A discharge factor of one
  • One time constant
- NEW -
What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?
  • It is unchanged
  • The sign is reversed
  • It is shifted by 90 degrees
  • The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220- microfarad capacitors and two 1- megohm resistors, all in parallel?
  • 55 seconds
  • 110 seconds
  • 440 seconds
  • 220 seconds
- NEW -
What happens to the magnitude of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?
  • It is unchanged
  • The sign is reversed
  • It is shifted by 90 degrees
  • The magnitude of the susceptance is the reciprocal of the magnitude of the reactance
- NEW -
What is susceptance?
  • The magnetic impedance of a circuit
  • The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
  • The inverse of reactance
  • A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
  • 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
What is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
  • Voltage and current are in phase
  • Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
  • Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
  • Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
  • Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
  • Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
  • Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
  • Voltage and current are in phase
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
- NEW -
What is admittance?
  • The inverse of impedance
  • The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
  • The turns ratio of a transformer
  • The unit used for Q factor
- NEW -
What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?
  • G
  • X
  • Y
  • B
Section E5C
ImpedanceCoordinate plotssystems and coordinatephasors systemsin electronics: plottingRectangular impedancesCoordinates; inPolar polar coordinatesCoordinates; rectangular coordinatesPhasors
  • Removed questions: 13
  • New questions: 7
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
  • 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
  • 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
  • 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
  • 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
  • 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
  • 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series?
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  • 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
  • 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
  • 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
  • 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
  • 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
  • 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
  • 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
  • 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
  • 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
  • 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
  • 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
  • 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
  • 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
  • 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  • 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
  • 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance?
  • 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
  • 5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
  • 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
REMOVED
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
  • 173 - j100 ohms
  • 200 + j100 ohms
  • 173 + j100 ohms
  • 200 - j100 ohms
REMOVED
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?
  • 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
  • 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees
  • 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
  • 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees
REMOVED
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
  • 40 + j31,400
  • 40 - j31,400
  • 31,400 + j40
  • 31,400 - j40
- NEW -
Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?
  • -jX
  • +jX
  • X
  • Omega
- NEW -
How are impedances described in polar coordinates?
  • By X and R values
  • By real and imaginary parts
  • By phase angle and amplitude
  • By Y and G values
- NEW -
Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?
  • A positive real part
  • A negative real part
  • A positive phase angle
  • A negative phase angle
- NEW -
Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in polar coordinates?
  • A positive real part
  • A negative real part
  • A positive phase angle
  • A negative phase angle
- NEW -
What is the name of the diagram used to show the phase relationship between impedancesat a given frequency?
  • Venn diagram
  • Near field diagram
  • Phasor diagram
  • Far field diagram
- NEW -
What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?
  • 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
  • 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
  • 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
  • 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
- NEW -
What is a vector?
  • The value of a quantity that changes over time
  • A quantity with both magnitude and an angular component
  • The inverse of the tangent function
  • The inverse of the sine function
was E5C14
What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
  • Maidenhead grid
  • Faraday grid
  • Elliptical coordinates
  • Polar coordinates
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent?
  • Resistive component
  • Reactive component
  • The sum of the reactive and resistive components
  • The difference between the resistive and reactive components
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent?
  • Resistive component
  • Reactive component
  • The sum of the reactive and resistive components
  • The difference between the resistive and reactive components
What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates represent?
  • The magnitude and phase of the point
  • The sine and cosine values
  • The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes
  • The tangent and cotangent values
If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
  • It has to be a direct current circuit
  • It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
  • It contains resistance and inductive reactance
  • It is equivalent to a pure resistance
What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
  • Maidenhead grid
  • Faraday grid
  • Elliptical coordinates
  • Rectangular coordinates
was E5C19
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents thatthe impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
  • Point 2
  • Point 4
  • Point 5
  • Point 6
was E5C20
Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 7
  • Point 8
was E5C21
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 7
  • Point 8
was E5C23
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300- ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 5
  • Point 8
Section E5D
AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinateelectrical systemslength of conductors at UHF and microwave frequencies
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 18
REMOVED
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents?
  • Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies
  • Because of the Heisenburg Effect
  • Because of skin effect
  • Because conductors are non-linear devices
REMOVED
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
  • A battery
  • A transformer
  • A capacitor
  • An inductor
REMOVED
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
  • Coulomb
  • Joule
  • Watt
  • Volt
REMOVED
Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
  • Potential differences between two points in space
  • Electric current
  • A charged capacitor
  • A battery
What is the result of skin effect?
  • As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
  • As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
  • Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
  • Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
- NEW -
Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?
  • To increase the thermal time constant
  • To avoid unwanted inductive reactance
  • To maintain component lifetime
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is microstrip?
  • Lightweight transmission line made of common zip cord
  • Miniature coax used for low power applications
  • Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
  • Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
- NEW -
Why are short connections necessary at microwave frequencies?
  • To increase neutralizing resistance
  • To reduce phase shift along the connection
  • Because of ground reflections
  • To reduce noise figure
- NEW -
Which parasitic characteristic increases with conductor length?
  • Inductance
  • Permeability
  • Permittivity
  • Malleability
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
  • In the same direction as the current
  • In a direction opposite to the current
  • In all directions; omnidirectionalomni-directional
  • In a direction determined by the left-hand rule
What determines the strength of athe magnetic field around a conductor?
  • The resistance divided by the current
  • The ratio of the current to the resistance
  • The diameter of the conductor
  • The amount of current flowing through the conductor
What type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
  • Electromechanical energy
  • Potential energy
  • Thermodynamic energy
  • Kinetic energy
What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?
  • It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
  • It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
  • It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
  • It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
  • By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
  • By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
  • By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
  • By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 1.414
  • 0.866
  • 0.5
  • 1.73
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-VVAC AC at 4 amperes?
  • 400 watts
  • 80 watts
  • 2000 watts
  • 50 watts
How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
  • 70.7 Watts
  • 100 Watts
  • 141.4 Watts
  • 200 Watts
What is reactive power?
  • Wattless, nonproductive power
  • Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
  • Power lost because of capacitor leakage
  • Power consumed in circuit Q
What is the power factor of an RLR-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 0.866
  • 1.0
  • 0.5
  • 0.707
What is the power factor of an RLR-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 1.73
  • 0.5
  • 0.866
  • 0.577
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V200VAC AC at 5 amperes?
  • 200 watts
  • 1000 watts
  • 1600 watts
  • 600 watts
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 VA500VA?
  • 704 W
  • 355 W
  • 252 W
  • 1.42 mW
Subelement E6
CIRCUIT COMPONENTS
  • Removed questions: 12
  • New questions: 19
  • Updated questions: 12
  • Total questions: 87
Section E6A
Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type; transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
  • Free neutrons
  • Free protons
  • Holes
  • Free electrons
REMOVED
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon?
  • In high-current rectifier circuits
  • In high-power audio circuits
  • AtIn microwave frequenciescircuits
  • AtIn very low frequency RF circuits
Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?
  • N-type
  • P-type
  • Bipolar
  • Insulated gate
- NEW -
Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
  • Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
  • Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
  • Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
  • Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting, the entire diode into an insulator
What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
  • Insulator impurity
  • N-type impurity
  • Acceptor impurity
  • Donor impurity
What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor?
  • The change of collector current with respect to base current
  • The change of base current with respect to collector current
  • The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
  • The change of collector current with respect to gate current
What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
  • The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
  • The change in collector current with respect to base current
  • The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
  • The switching speed of the transistor
was E4A10
Which of the following testsindicates establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
  • Measure baseBase-to-emitter resistance withof an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 ohms
  • Measure baseBase-to-emitter resistance withof an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
  • Measure baseBase-to-emitter voltage withof a voltmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 volts
  • Measure baseBase-to-emitter voltage withof a voltmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts
What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
  • Corner frequency
  • Alpha rejection frequency
  • Beta cutoff frequency
  • Alpha cutoff frequency
What is a depletion-mode FET?
  • An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
  • An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
  • Any FET without a channel
  • Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 6
Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
  • To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
  • To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
  • To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
  • To reduce the chance of the gate insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
What do the initials CMOS stand for?
  • Common Mode Oscillating System
  • Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
  • Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
  • Common Mode Organic Silicon
How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?
  • They are both low impedance
  • An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
  • An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
  • They are both high impedance
Which of the following semiconductor materialsmaterial contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?
  • N-type
  • P-type
  • Superconductor-type
  • Bipolar-type
What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
  • Holes
  • Free electrons
  • Free protons
  • Free neutrons
What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
  • Gate 1, gate 2, drain
  • Emitter, base, collector
  • Emitter, base 1, base 2
  • Gate, drain, source
Section E6B
Semiconductor diodesDiodes
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 13
What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
  • A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
  • A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
  • A negative resistance region
  • An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?
  • Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
  • Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
  • Enhanced carrier retention time
  • Less forward voltage drop
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
  • Point contact
  • Zener
  • Tunnel
  • Junction
What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
  • Varactor diode
  • Tunnel diode
  • Silicon-controlled rectifier
  • Zener diode
What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
  • Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
  • Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
  • Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
  • A large region of intrinsic material
Which of the following is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
  • As balanced mixers in FM generation
  • As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
  • As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
  • As a VHF / UHF mixer or detector
What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?
  • Excessive inverse voltage
  • Excessive junction temperature
  • Insufficient forward voltage
  • Charge carrier depletion
Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?
  • Metal-semiconductor junction
  • Electrolytic rectifier
  • CMOS-field effect
  • Thermionic emission diode
What is a common use for point contact diodes?
  • As a constant current source
  • As a constant voltage source
  • As an RF detector
  • As a high voltage rectifier
In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
  • 1
  • 5
  • 6
  • 7
What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
  • Forward DC bias current
  • A sub-harmonic pump signal
  • Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
  • Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
What is one common use for PIN diodes?
  • As a constant current source
  • As a constant voltage source
  • As an RF switch
  • As a high voltage rectifier
What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
  • Reverse bias
  • Forward bias
  • Zero bias
  • Inductive bias
Section E6C
IntegratedDigital circuitsICs: TTLFamilies of digital integratedICs; circuitsgates; CMOSProgrammable digitalLogic integratedDevices circuits; gates(PLDs)
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
  • 12 volts
  • 1.5 volts
  • 5 volts
  • 13.6 volts
REMOVED
What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
  • A logic-high state
  • A logic-low state
  • The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low-logic states
  • Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
REMOVED
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
REMOVED
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
- NEW -
What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?
  • To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
  • To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signal
  • To cause the output to change states continually
  • To increase the sensitivity
- NEW -
What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?
  • The IC input can be damaged
  • The comparator changes its output state
  • The comparator enters latch-up
  • The feedback loop becomes unstable
WhichWhat ofis the following describes tri-state logic?
  • Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
  • Logic devices that utilize ternary math
  • Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
  • Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
WhichWhat of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?
  • Low power consumption
  • Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
  • High speed operation
  • More efficient arithmetic operations
WhichWhat of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
  • Differential output capability
  • Lower distortion
  • Immune to damage from static discharge
  • Lower power consumption
Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
  • Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design
  • The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage
  • The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
  • Input signals are stronger
- NEW -
What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?
  • A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
  • A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
  • A resistor that insures that an oscillator frequency does not drive lower over time
  • A resistor connected to an op-amp output that only functions when the logic output is false
was E6C07
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for ana ANDNAND gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
- NEW -
What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
  • A device to control industrial equipment
  • A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
  • Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
  • An algorithm for simulating logic functions during circuit design
was E6C09
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for ana ORNOR gate?
  • 21
  • 32
  • 43
  • 64
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inverter)?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
What is BiCMOS logic?
  • A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package
  • AnA FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
  • A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
  • An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
  • Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
  • It is totally immune to electrostatic damage
  • It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
  • All of these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is the primary advantage of using a Programmable Gate Array (PGA) in a logic circuit?
  • Many similar gates are less expensive than a mixture of gate types
  • Complex logic functions can be created in a single integrated circuit
  • A PGA contains its own internal power supply
  • All of these choices are correct
Section E6D
OpticalToroidal devices and toroids:Solenoidal cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices (CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs) ToroidsInductors: permeability;, core material;, selecting, winding; windingtransformers; Piezoelectric devices
  • Removed questions: 6
  • New questions: 7
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 17
REMOVED
What is cathode ray tube (CRT) persistence?
  • The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is turned on
  • The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of ambient light
  • The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
  • The length of time the image remains on the screen after the beam is turned off
REMOVED
Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?
  • The heater voltage
  • The anode voltage
  • The operating temperature
  • The operating frequency
REMOVED
What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?
  • It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
  • It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
  • It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
  • It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal
REMOVED
What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?
  • Electromagnetic
  • Tubular
  • Radar
  • Electrostatic
REMOVED
Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
  • It uses a combination of analog and digital circuitry
  • It can be used to make an audio delay line
  • It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
  • It samples and stores analog signals
REMOVED
What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?
  • They consume less power
  • They can display changes instantly
  • They are visible in all light conditions
  • They can be easily interchanged with other display devices
was E6D12
How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?
  • 35 turns
  • 13 turns
  • 79 turns
  • 141 turns
was E6E10
What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in parallel with a shunt capacitancecapacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representrepresenting electrode and stray capacitance all in series
  • Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
was E6E03
WhatWhich of the following is onean aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
  • PhysicalMechanical deformation of amaterial crystal by the application of a voltage
  • Mechanical deformation of amaterial crystal by the application of a magnetic field
  • TheGeneration generation of electrical energy byin the applicationpresence of light
  • ReversedIncreased conductionconductivity statesin whenthe apresence P-Nof junction is exposed to light
- NEW -
Which materials are commonly used as a slug core in a variable inductor?
  • Polystyrene and polyethylene
  • Ferrite and brass
  • Teflon and Delrin
  • Cobalt and aluminum
was E6D16
What is one reason for using ferrite toroidscores rather than powdered-iron toroids in an inductor?
  • Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilitiespermeability
  • Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
  • Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
  • Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface mount technology
What core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
  • Thermal impedance
  • Resistance
  • Reactivity
  • Permeability
What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?
  • From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
  • From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
  • From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
  • From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroidscores rather than ferrite toroidscores in an inductor?
  • Powdered-iron toroidscores generally have greater initial permeability
  • Powdered-iron toroidscores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
  • Powdered-iron toroidscores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
  • Powdered-iron toroidscores haveuse highersmaller powerdiameter handlingwire capacityfor the same inductance
What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorizeda transistor HF amplifiersamplifier?
  • Electrolytic capacitors
  • Butterworth filters
  • Ferrite beads
  • Steel-core toroids
What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
  • Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
  • Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
  • Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
  • Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523 millihenrys/1000 turns?
  • 2 turns
  • 4 turns
  • 43 turns
  • 229 turns
- NEW -
What is the definition of saturation in a ferrite core inductor?
  • The inductor windings are over coupled
  • The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
  • The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
  • Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
- NEW -
What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?
  • Inter-turn capacitance
  • The skin effect
  • Inductive kickback
  • Non-linear core hysteresis
- NEW -
Which type of slug material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?
  • Ceramic
  • Brass
  • Ferrite
  • Powdered-iron
- NEW -
What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?
  • Magnetizing current
  • Direct current
  • Excitation current
  • Stabilizing current
- NEW -
What is the common name for a capacitor connected across a transformer secondary that is used to absorb transient voltage spikes?
  • Clipper capacitor
  • Trimmer capacitor
  • Feedback capacitor
  • Snubber capacitor
- NEW -
Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be avoided?
  • Harmonics and distortion could result
  • Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
  • RF susceptance would increase
  • Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
Section E6E
PiezoelectricAnalog crystalsICs: and MMICs:, quartzCCDs, crystalDevice oscillators and crystal filters); monolithic amplifierspackages
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 12
was E6D03
Which of the following is true of a charge-coupled device (CCD)?
  • Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
  • It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
  • It samples an analog signal and passes it in stages from the input to the output
  • It is used in a battery charger circuit
- NEW -
Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?
  • DIP
  • PLCC
  • Ball grid array
  • SOT
was E6E11
Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
  • Silicon
  • Silicon nitride
  • Silicon dioxide
  • Gallium nitride
WhatWhich is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
  • 50 ohms
  • 300 ohms
  • 450 ohms
  • 10 ohms
Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
  • 2 dB
  • -10 dB
  • 44 dBm
  • -20 dBm
What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
  • The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
  • Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
  • Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
  • Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
  • Ground-plane construction
  • Microstrip construction
  • Point-to-point construction
  • Wave-soldering construction
How is voltage from a power- supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
  • Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
  • MMICs require no operating bias
  • Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
  • Directly to the bias- voltage (VCC IN) lead
- NEW -
Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use at frequencies above the HF range?
  • TO-220
  • Axial lead
  • Radial lead
  • Surface mount
- NEW -
What is the packaging technique in which leadless components are soldered directly to circuit boards?
  • Direct soldering
  • Virtual lead mounting
  • Stripped lead
  • Surface mount
- NEW -
What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?
  • Package mounts in a direct inverted position
  • Low leakage doubly insulated package
  • Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
  • A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
- NEW -
Why are high-power RF amplifier ICs and transistors sometimes mounted in ceramic packages?
  • High-voltage insulating ability
  • Better dissipation of heat
  • Enhanced sensitivity to light
  • To provide a low-pass frequency response
Section E6F
Optical components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects, photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators; LCDs
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 14
What is photoconductivity?
  • The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
  • The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
  • The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
  • The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
  • It increases
  • It decreases
  • It stays the same
  • It becomes unstable
What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
  • A lens and a photomultiplier
  • A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
  • An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
  • An LED and a phototransistor
What is the photovoltaic effect?
  • The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
  • The conversion of light to electrical energy
  • The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
  • The tendency of a battery to discharge when used outside
Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
  • A device which detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
  • A device which measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to digital conversion
  • A digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
  • A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.
Which of these materials is affected the most by photoconductivity?
  • A crystalline semiconductor
  • An ordinary metal
  • A heavy metal
  • A liquid semiconductor
What is a solid state relay?
  • A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
  • A device that uses semiconductorsemiconductors devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
  • A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
  • A passive delay line
Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when switching 120 VAC120VAC?
  • Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
  • Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
  • Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
  • Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
  • The output RF power divided by the input dcDC power
  • The effective payback period
  • The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
  • The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?
  • Selenium
  • Silicon
  • Cadmium Sulfide
  • Copper oxide
WhichWhat of the following is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
  • 0.1 V
  • 0.5 V
  • 1.5 V
  • 12 V
What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
  • Protons
  • Photons
  • Electrons
  • Holes
was E6D05
What is a liquid- crystal display (LCD)?
  • A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency
  • A display usingutilizing a crystalline liquid which,and in conjunction with polarizing filters, which becomes opaque when voltage is applied
  • A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver
  • A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light
- NEW -
Which of the following is true of LCD displays?
  • They are hard to view in high ambient light conditions
  • They may be hard view through polarized lenses
  • They only display alphanumeric symbols
  • All of these choices are correct
Subelement E7
PRACTICAL CIRCUITS
  • Removed questions: 31
  • New questions: 22
  • Updated questions: 13
  • Total questions: 117
Section E7A
Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?
  • None
  • One
  • Two
  • Four
REMOVED
What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
  • A speed-reduced logic device with high power capability
  • A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
  • A speed-reduced logic device with very low voltage operation capability
  • A set/reset flip-flop that toggles whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
REMOVED
What is a JK flip-flop?
  • A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
  • A flip-flop utilizing low power, low temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
  • A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
  • A flip-flop originally developed in Japan and Korea which has very low power consumption
REMOVED
What is a D flip-flop?
  • A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
  • A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
  • A dynamic memory storage element
  • A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions
Which of the following is a bistablebi-stable circuit?
  • An "AND" gate
  • An "OR" gate
  • A flip-flop
  • A clock
was E7F03
What is the function of a decade counter digital IC?
  • It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
  • It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven- segment LED display
  • It produces ten output pulses for every input pulse
  • It adds two decimal numbers together
Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
  • An XOR gate
  • A flip-flop
  • An OR gate
  • A multiplexer
How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 8
Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?
  • Monostable multivibrator
  • J-K flip-flop
  • T flip-flop
  • Astable multivibrator
What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
  • It switches momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns, to its original state after a set time, to its original state
  • It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
  • It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
  • It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0"
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
  • It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"
- NEW -
What logical operation is performed by an exclusive NOR gate?
  • It produces logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
  • It produces logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
  • It produces logic "0" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
  • It produces logic "1" at its output if any single input is logic "1"
What is a truth table?
  • A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
  • A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true
  • A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
  • A table of logic symbols that indicatesindicate the low logic states of an op-amp
What istype theof name for logic whichdefines represents a logic "1" as a high voltage?
  • Reverse Logic
  • Assertive Logic
  • Negative logic
  • Positive Logic
What istype theof name for logic whichdefines represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?
  • Reverse Logic
  • Assertive Logic
  • Negative logic
  • Positive Logic
Section E7B
Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers; switching-type amplifiers
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 18
REMOVED
In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of C2?
  • Output coupling
  • Emitter bypass
  • Input coupling
  • Hum filtering
REMOVED
What is a klystron?
  • A high speed multivibrator
  • An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube
  • An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability
  • A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation
REMOVED
What is a parametric amplifier?
  • A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity derived from use of very high voltage on the collector
  • A low-noise VHF or UHF amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification
  • A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect to increase gain
  • An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for extremely low noise
REMOVED
Which of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power amplifier applications?
  • Field effect transistor
  • Nuvistor
  • Silicon controlled rectifier
  • Triac
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
  • More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
  • Exactly 180 degrees
  • The entire cycle
  • Less than 180 degrees
What is a Class D amplifier?
  • A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
  • A low power amplifier usingthat uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
  • An amplifier usingthat uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
  • A frequency doubling amplifier
Which of the following formscomponents form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?
  • A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
  • A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
  • A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
  • A temperature-compensated compensating load resistor to improve linearity
Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?
  • Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
  • Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
  • At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
  • At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
  • Tune the stage for maximum SWR
  • Tune both the input and output for maximum power
  • Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage