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Comparing 2024 Amateur Extra class pool with 2020 Amateur Extra class pool
  • Removed questions: 117
  • New questions: 100
  • Updated questions: 154
  • Previous Total questions: 619
  • Total questions: 601
Subelement E1
COMMISSION RULES
  • Removed questions: 10
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 16
  • Total questions: 68
Section E1A
Operating Standards: Frequency privileges; signal frequency privilegesrange; automatic message forwarding; stations aboard ships or aircraft; power restriction on 630- and 2200 -meter bands
  • Removed questions: 5
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?
  • 18.068 MHz
  • 18.100 MHz
  • 18.107 MHz
  • 18.110 MHz
REMOVED
What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?
  • 14.070 MHz
  • 14.100 MHz
  • 14.149 MHz
  • 14.349 MHz
REMOVED
What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?
  • 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
  • 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
  • 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
  • 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
REMOVED
What action or actions should you take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
  • Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it
  • Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
  • Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?
  • None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
  • They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
  • They are restricted to phone band segments
  • They are not permitted above 54 MHz
- NEW -
Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz?
  • USB is not used on 20-meter phone
  • The lower 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band
  • 14.348 MHz is outside the 20-meter band
  • The upper 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?
  • The exact lower band edge
  • 300 Hz above the lower band edge
  • 1 kHz above the lower band edge
  • 3 kHz above the lower band edge
- NEW -
What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?
  • 14.0708 MHz
  • 14.1002 MHz
  • 14.1472 MHz
  • 14.3490 MHz
With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?
  • Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operatorsbecause the DX station initiated the contact
  • Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 -meter phone band segment
  • No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
  • No, U.S.No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
was E1A13
Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?
  • Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
  • Any Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur named in an amateur station license grantor who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
  • Only a Any person named in an holding an FCC issued amateur station license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operationgrant
  • Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
Where mustWhat is the carrier required transmit frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for for channelized 60 meter operation?
  • At the lowest frequency of the channel
  • At the center frequency of the channel
  • At the highest frequency of the channel
  • On any frequency where the signal'’s sidebands are within the channel
What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 -meter band?
  • 50 watts PEP50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
  • 100 watts PEP100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
  • 1 watt EIRP (Equivalentequivalent isotropic radiated power)
  • 5 watts EIRP (Equivalentequivalent isotropic radiated power)
If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
  • The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
  • The control operator of the originating station
  • The control operators of all the stations in the system
  • The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
was E1A14
Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630 -meter band?
  • 50 watts PEP50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
  • 100 watts PEP100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
  • 1 watt EIRP1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
  • 5 watts EIRP5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?
  • Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
  • The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
  • The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
  • The amateur operatorstation must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bandshave an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
Which of the following describes authorization or licensing What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-US-registered vessel in international waters?
  • Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
  • Any FCC-issued amateur license
  • Only General Classclass or higher amateur licenses
  • An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
Section E1B
Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions; spurious emissions; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?
  • A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
  • A letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
  • An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
  • A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?
  • An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
  • A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
  • Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station and whose levels exceed 40 dB below the fundamental power level
  • An emission outside the signal'’s necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based digital voice or SSTV digitalslow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?
  • 3 kHz
  • 10 kHz
  • 15 kHz
  • 20 kHz
Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?
  • 1 mile
  • 3 miles
  • 10 miles
  • 30 miles
was E1B12
What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 cm -centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?
  • Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)Cease operation or make changes to the repeater to mitigate the interference
  • File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to AirmenAir Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
  • Reduce Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interferenceantenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
  • All these choices are correct
What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
  • An area surrounding the FCC monitoring station in Laurel, Marylandin Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
  • An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
  • An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
  • An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installingerecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?
  • You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
  • You may have to enter the height above ground in meters, and the latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds on the FAA websiteYou must submit engineering drawings to the FAA
  • You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
  • You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority per Part 119 of the FAA regulations
To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?
  • Homeowners associations
  • FAA tower height limits
  • State and local zoning
  • Use of wireless devices in vehicles
What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?
  • The amateur station must cease operation
  • The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
  • The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
  • The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?
  • Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra Classclass operators
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician classClass
  • Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
  • Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergencyAny FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS)
What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?
  • All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
  • Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
  • Specific local government channels
  • All these choices are correctMilitary Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures??
  • No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
  • Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
  • Amateur radio operations Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstratedin any private residence
  • Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineerUse of wireless devices in a vehicle is exempt from regulation
Section E1C
Rules pertaining to automatic Automatic and remote control; band-specific regulations; operating in, and communicating with foreign countries; spurious emission standards; HF modulation index limit; band-specific rulesbandwidth definition
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control?
  • Under local control there is no control operator
  • Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point
  • Under automatic control there is no control operator
  • Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point
REMOVED
At what level below a signal's mean power level is its bandwidth determined according to FCC rules?
  • 3 dB
  • 6 dB
  • 23 dB
  • 26 dB
What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
  • 60 Hz
  • 170 Hz
  • 1.5 kHz
  • 2.8 kHz
Which of the following types ofapply to communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
  • Third party traffic must be limited to that intended for the exclusive use of government and non-Government Organization (NGOs) involved in emergency relief activitiesBusiness-related messages for non-profit organizations
  • All transmissions must be in EnglishMessages intended for users of the maritime satellite service
  • Communications must be limited to those incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
  • All these choices are correct
was E1C14
How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200 -meter or 630 -meter band?
  • Operators must not operate until approval is received
  • Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kmkilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
  • Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
  • Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
What is meant by an IARP?
  • An international amateur radio A permit that allows U.S.US amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
  • The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
  • An indication of increased antenna reflected power
  • A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
- NEW -
Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?
  • Never
  • Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
  • Only when transmitting SSB or CW
  • On any mode approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?
  • You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
  • The U.S.The US embassy must approve of your operation
  • You must bringhave a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
  • You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
was E1C13
What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630 meter - or 2200 -meter bands?
  • A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
  • An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
  • Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and coordinates ofdistance to the nearest runwaystation
  • Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and distance tocoordinates of the stationnearest runway
What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station'’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions?
  • 30 seconds
  • 3 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • 10 minutes
What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?
  • 0.5
  • 1.0
  • 2.0
  • 3.0
What is the permittedmaximum mean power of any level for a spurious emission relative to the mean power ofbelow 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission? from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz?
  • At least 43 dB below- 43 dB
  • At least 53 dB below- 53 dB
  • At least 63 dB below- 63 dB
  • At least 73 dB below- 73 dB
Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed U.S.US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?U.S.?
  • CEPT agreementCEPT
  • IARP agreementIARP
  • ITU reciprocal license
  • All these choices are correct
OnIn what portion of the 630 -meter band are phone emissions permitted?
  • None
  • Only the top 3 kHz
  • Only the bottom 3 kHz
  • The entire band
Section E1D
Amateur spaceSpace and Earth stations; telemetry and telecommand rules; identification of balloon transmissions; one-way communications
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 12
What is the definition of telemetry?
  • One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
  • Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
  • Two-way transmissions of data
  • One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
Which of the following may transmit special codes intended to obscure the meaning of encrypted messages?
  • Telecommand signals to terrestrial repeatersfrom a space telecommand station
  • Telecommand signals from a space telecommand stationData containing personal information
  • Auxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
  • Mesh network backbone nodesBinary control characters
What is a space telecommand station?
  • An amateur station located on the surface of the Earth for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
  • An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify, or terminate functions of a space station
  • An amateur station located in a satellite or a balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
  • An amateur station that receives telemetry from a satellite or balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?
  • Call sign
  • The output power of the balloon transmitter
  • The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
  • All these choices are correct
What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kmkilometers of the earth'Earth’s surface?
  • A photocopy of the station license
  • A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
  • A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
  • All these choices are correct
What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?
  • 1 watt
  • 2 watts
  • 5 watts
  • 100 watts
Which of the following HF amateur bands have frequencies authorized include allocations for space stations?
  • Only the 40, 20, 17, 15, 1240 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 metersmeter bands
  • Only the 40, 20, 17, 1530 meters, 17 meters, and 10 metersmeter bands
  • Only the 40, 30, 20, 15, 12, and 10 meter bandsOnly 10 meters
  • All HF bandsSatellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
  • 6 meters and 2 meters
  • 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
  • 2 meters and 1.25 meters
  • 2 meters
Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
  • 70 cm only70 centimeters only
  • 70 cm70 centimeters and 13 centimeterscm
  • 70 cm70 centimeters and 33 centimeterscm
  • 33 cm33 centimeters and 13 centimeterscm
Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations (, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?)?
  • Any amateur station approved by AMSATdesignated by NASA
  • Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
  • Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
  • All these choices are correct
Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
  • Any amateur licensee who has successfully completed the AMSAT space communications coursestation whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
  • Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Classclass operators
  • Only those of Amateur Extra Classclass operators
  • Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?
  • A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
  • A local repeater or linked repeater station
  • A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
  • All these choices are correct
Section E1E
Volunteer examiner program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams; reimbursement; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What is the minimum passing score on all amateur operator license examinations?
  • Minimum passing score of 70%
  • Minimum passing score of 74%
  • Minimum passing score of 80%
  • Minimum passing score of 77%
For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
  • Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
  • Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
  • No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
  • Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
Who does Who is tasked by Part 97 task with maintaining the pools of questions for all U.S.US amateur license examinations?
  • The VEs
  • The FCC
  • The VECs
  • The ARRL
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
  • A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
  • A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license An organization paid by the volunteer examiner team to publicize and schedule examinations
  • An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate, prepare, and administer amateur operator license examinations
  • The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
Which of the following best describes the What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner? accreditation process?
  • Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Classclass operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
  • The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
  • The prospective VE obtains must obtain accreditation from the FCC
  • The procedure by which a VEC confirms A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
was E1E12
What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
  • ReturnMaintain the application document toform with the VEC’s recordsexaminee
  • MaintainReturn the application form withdocument to the examineeVEC's records
  • Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
  • Destroy the application form
Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?
  • The VEC coordinating the session
  • The FCCThe designated monitoring VE
  • Each administering VE
  • The Only the VE session manager
What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner'’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination?
  • Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
  • Immediately terminate the candidate'’s examination
  • Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
  • Immediately terminate everyone'’s examination and close the session
To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
  • Employees of the VE
  • Friends of the VE
  • Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
  • All these choices are correct
What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
  • Revocation of the VE'’s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE'’s amateur operator license grant
  • A fine of up to $10001,000 per occurrence
  • A sentence of up to one year in prison
  • All these choices are correct
What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
  • They must collect and send the documents directly to the FCCNCVEC for grading
  • They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
  • They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
  • They must collect and send the documents return the documents to the applicant for submission to the FCC according to the FCC instructions
What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?
  • Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
  • Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
  • Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
  • All these choices are correct
Section E1F
Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; prohibited communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; Canadian amateurs operating in the U.S.;US; special temporary authority; control operator of an auxiliary station
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emissions?
  • A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions
  • The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
  • The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
  • All these choices are correct
On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
  • Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
What privileges are authorized in the U.S.US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?
  • None, they must obtain a U.S.US license
  • AllFull privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bandsAmateur Extra Class license
  • The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S.US Amateur Extra Classclass license privileges
  • Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra Classclass license, on the 80, 40, 20, 15,-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10 -meter bands
Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
  • Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or lessIt was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
  • The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
  • It was imported from a manufacturer manufactured and certificated in a country that does not requirewhich has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCCof RF power amplifiers
  • The amplifier is constructed or modified by an amateur radio operator for use at an amateur stationIt was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
  • A line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the U.S.US and Canada
  • A line roughly parallel to and west of the U.S.US Atlantic coastline
  • A line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the U.S.US and Mexico
  • A line roughly parallel to and east of the U.S.US Pacific coastline
Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
  • 440 MHz - 450 MHz
  • 53 MHz - 54 MHz
  • 222 MHz - 223 MHz
  • 420 MHz - 430 MHz
Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?
  • To provide for experimental amateur communications
  • To allow use of a special event call signregular operation on Land Mobile channels
  • To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated areaTo provide additional spectrum for personal use
  • To provide temporary operation To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC databaseawaiting normal licensing
When may an amateur station send a message to a business?
  • When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $25total money involved does not exceed $25
  • When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $50control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
  • When transmitting international third-party communicationsAt no time
  • When neither the amateur nor his or her their employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?
  • Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
  • Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
  • Communications that have religious content
  • Communications in a language other than English
- NEW -
Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?
  • Third party traffic
  • Email
  • Messages encoded to obscure their meaning
  • All these choices are correct
Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
  • Any licensed amateur operator
  • Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra Classclass operators
  • Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra Classclass operators
  • Only Amateur Extra Classclass operators
Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
  • It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
  • It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
  • It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less0 dB or less over its full output range
  • It must satisfy the FCC'’s spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
Subelement E2
OPERATING PROCEDURES
  • Removed questions: 15
  • New questions: 16
  • Updated questions: 12
  • Total questions: 60
Section E2A
Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 12
What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?
  • From west to east
  • From east to west
  • From south to north
  • From north to south
Which of the following occurs when a satellite is using is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?
  • Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
  • Signal position in the band is reversed
  • Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa
  • All these choices are correct
How is the an upload signal invertedprocessed by an inverting linear transponder?
  • The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
  • The signal is passed through a non-linearnonlinear filter
  • The signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
  • The signal is passed through a mixer mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference rather than the sum product is transmitted
What is meant by the term "mode" as applied to “mode” of an amateur radio satellite?
  • Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
  • The satellite'’s uplink and downlink frequency bands
  • The satellite'’s orientation with respect to the Earth
  • Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
What do the letters in a satellite'’s mode designator specify?
  • Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
  • The location of the ground control station
  • The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
  • The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
What are Keplerian elements?
  • Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite
  • Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
  • High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
  • Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
  • FM and CW
  • SSB and SSTV
  • PSK and packet
  • All these choices are correct
Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? be limited?
  • To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
  • To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
  • To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
  • To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
What do the terms "“L band"” and "“S band"” specify? regarding satellite communications?
  • The 23 centimeter - and 13 -centimeter bands
  • The 2 -meter and 70 -centimeter bands
  • FM and Digital Storedigital store-and-Forwardforward systems
  • Which sideband to use
What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
  • HEO
  • Geostationary
  • Geomagnetic
  • LEO
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?
  • A linearly polarized antenna
  • A circularly polarized antenna
  • An isotropic antenna
  • A log-periodic dipole array
What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?
  • To upload operational software for the transponder
  • To delay download of telemetry between satellites
  • To storeTo hold digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
  • To relay messages between satellites
Section E2B
Television practices: fast -scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
REMOVED
What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
  • Luminance
  • Chroma
  • Hue
  • Spectral intensity
REMOVED
What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
  • A special IF converter
  • A special front end limiter
  • A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
  • No other hardware is needed
- NEW -
In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?
  • 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
  • Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
  • 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
  • Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
  • 30
  • 60
  • 525
  • 1080
How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?
  • By scanning two fields simultaneously
  • By scanning each field from bottom-to-top to top
  • By scanning lines from left to -to-right in one field and right to -to-left in the next
  • By scanning odd -numbered lines in one field and even -numbered lines in the next
How is color information sent in analog SSTV?
  • Color lines are sent sequentially
  • Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier
  • Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line
  • Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?
  • The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
  • The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
  • Vestigial sideband reduces the bandwidth while allowing for simple increasing the fidelity of low frequency video componentsdetector circuitry
  • Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
What is vestigial sideband modulation?
  • Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
  • A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
  • Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
  • Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
- NEW -
Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals?
  • FM and FSK
  • QAM and QPSK
  • AM and OOK
  • All these choices are correct
What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70 cm -centimeter band?
  • Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
  • Using converted satellite TV dishes
  • Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
  • Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
- NEW -
What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?
  • CDMA
  • AREDN
  • AM
  • SSB
What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?
  • Tone frequency
  • Tone amplitude
  • Sync amplitude
  • Sync frequency
What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signalingvertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?
  • To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
  • To identify the SSTV mode being used
  • To provide vertical synchronization
  • To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?
  • Specific tone frequencies
  • Elapsed time
  • Specific tone amplitudes
  • A two-tone signal
Section E2C
Operating methods: contest Contest and DX operating; remote operation techniques; Cabrillo log data format; QSLingcontact confirmation; RF network connected systems
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of the following best describes the term "self-spotting" in connection with HF contest operating?
  • The often-prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a spotting network
  • The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a spotting network
  • A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
  • An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station
REMOVED
Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the U.S. QSL bureau system?
  • Special event contacts between stations in the U.S.
  • Contacts between a U.S. station and a non-U.S. station
  • Repeater contacts between U.S. club members
  • Contacts using tactical call signs
What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?U.S.?
  • / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
  • /R# where # is the district of the remote station
  • / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
  • No additional indicator is required
- NEW -
Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?
  • NEC
  • ARLD
  • ADIF
  • OCF
From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?
  • 30 meters
  • 6 meters
  • 2 meters70 centimeters
  • 33 centimeters
Which of the following frequencies are sometimescan be used for amateur radio mesh networks?
  • HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
  • Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
  • Cable TV channels 41-43 through 43
  • The 60 -meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?
  • To allocate Allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
  • To handle Handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards confirmations for a DX station
  • To run Run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
  • Communicate to a DXpedition about propagation, band openings, pileup conditions, etc.To relay calls to and from a DX station
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?
  • At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
  • In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
  • In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
  • In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
What is the Cabrillo format?
  • A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
  • A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
  • The most common set of contest rules
  • The rules of order for meetings between A digital protocol specifically designed for rapid contest exchangessponsors
- NEW -
Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?
  • Special event contacts between stations in the US
  • Contacts between a US station and a non-US station
  • Contacts for Worked All States credit
  • All these choices are correct
What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?
  • A 2 A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1200 1,200-baud modem
  • A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internetAn optical cable connection between the USB ports of 2 separate computers
  • A wireless router running custom firmware
  • A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9600 9,600-baud modem
Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?
  • Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
  • To separate the calling stations from the DX station
  • To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
  • All these choices are correct
How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?
  • Send your full call sign once or twice
  • Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
  • Send your full call sign and grid square
  • Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "“this is,",” then your call sign three times
- NEW -
What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?
  • Jitter
  • Hang time
  • Latency
  • Anti-VOX
Section E2D
Operating methods: VHF and UHF digital modesdigital modes and procedures for VHF and proceduresUHF; APRS; EME procedures; meteor scatter procedures
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor scatter contacts?
  • 15-second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based on location
  • Use of special digital modes
  • Short transmissions with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?
  • MSK144
  • PACTOR III
  • Olivia
  • JT65
REMOVED
How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?
  • An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
  • APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
  • An APRS station with a Global Positioning System unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate station location?
  • Polar coordinates
  • Time and frequency
  • Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
  • Latitude and longitude
Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?
  • WSPR
  • MSK144
  • Hellschreiber
  • APRS
- NEW -
What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest?
  • RST report
  • State abbreviation
  • Serial number
  • Grid square
- NEW -
Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?
  • MSK144
  • PACTOR III
  • WSPR
  • Q65
What technology is used to track, in real time, for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?
  • UltrasonicsFT8
  • Bandwidth compressed LORAN
  • APRS
  • Doppler shift of beacon signals PACTOR III
What is one advantagethe characteristic of the JT65 mode?
  • Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
  • The ability to decode Decodes signals which have with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
  • Symbol rate is 65 baudEasily copied by ear if necessary
  • Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
Which of the following describesis a method offor establishing EME contacts?
  • Time Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stationsalternately from each station
  • Storing and forwarding digital messages
  • Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
  • High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
What digital protocol is used by APRS?
  • PACTOR
  • 802.11QAM
  • AX.25
  • AMTOR
What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
  • AcknowledgementUnnumbered Information
  • DisconnectBurst
  • Unnumbered InformationAcknowledgement
  • Connect
What type of modulation is used forby JT65? contacts?
  • Multi-tone AFSKMultitone AFSK
  • PSK
  • RTTY
  • IEEE 802.11QAM
- NEW -
What does the packet path WIDE3-1 designate?
  • Three stations are allowed on frequency, one transmitting at a time
  • Three subcarriers are permitted, subcarrier one is being used
  • Three digipeater hops are requested with one remaining
  • Three internet gateway stations may receive one transmission
- NEW -
How do APRS stations relay data?
  • By packet ACK/NAK relay
  • By C4FM repeaters
  • By DMR repeaters
  • By packet digipeaters
Section E2E
Operating methods: digital modes and procedures for HFoperating HF digital modes
  • Removed questions: 6
  • New questions: 6
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?
  • Forward Error Correction
  • First Error Correction
  • Fatal Error Correction
  • Final Error Correction
REMOVED
How is the timing of FT4 contacts organized?
  • By exchanging ACK/NAK packets
  • Stations take turns on alternate days
  • Alternating transmissions at 7.5 second intervals
  • It depends on the lunar phase
REMOVED
What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?
  • Selective fading has occurred
  • One of the signal filters is saturated
  • The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
  • The mark and space signal have been inverted
REMOVED
What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?
  • 48 baud
  • 110 baud
  • 300 baud
  • 1200 baud
REMOVED
Which of the following is a possible reason that attempts to initiate contact with a digital station on a clear frequency are unsuccessful?
  • Your transmit frequency is incorrect
  • The protocol version you are using is not supported by the digital station
  • Another station you are unable to hear is using the frequency
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?
  • AMTOR
  • 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
  • PSK31
  • 300 baud packet
Which of the following types of modulation is commonused for data emissions below 30 MHz?
  • DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
  • FSK
  • Pulse modulation
  • Spread spectrum
- NEW -
Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?
  • Alignment of frequency shifts
  • Synchronization of computer clocks
  • Sync-field transmission
  • Sync-pulse timing
- NEW -
To what does the "4" in FT4 refer?
  • Multiples of 4 bits of user information
  • Four-tone continuous-phase frequency shift keying
  • Four transmit/receive cycles per minute
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?
  • Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying
  • Variable transmit/receive periods
  • Seven different tone spacings
  • All these choices are correct
Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
  • PACTORWSPR
  • RTTY
  • PSK31
  • MFSKMFSK16
- NEW -
What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle?
  • It varies with the amount of data
  • 8 seconds
  • 15 seconds
  • 30 seconds
- NEW -
How does Q65 differ from JT65?
  • Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
  • Quadrature modulation is used
  • Multiple receive cycles are averaged
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?
  • HellschreiberPSK31
  • PACTOR
  • RTTY
  • AMTOR
Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length character coding? for bandwidth efficiency?
  • RTTY
  • PACTOR
  • MT63
  • PSK31
Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
  • MFSK16
  • 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
  • PSK31FT8
  • 300-baud packetPACTOR IV
What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?
  • Direct FSK appliesmodulates the data signal to the transmitter VFO, while AFSK transmits tones via phone
  • Direct FSK occupies less bandwidth
  • Direct FSK can transmit fasterhigher baud rates
  • All these choices are correctOnly direct FSK can be decoded by computer
How do ALE stations establish contact?
  • ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
  • ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
  • ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
  • ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
- NEW -
Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions?
  • MFSK16
  • 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
  • FT8
  • PACTOR IV
Subelement E3
RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION
  • Removed questions: 13
  • New questions: 12
  • Updated questions: 11
  • Total questions: 39
Section E3A
Electromagnetic waves; Waves and Specialized Propagation: Earth-Moon-Earth (EME) communications; meteor scatter; microwave tropospheric and scatter propagation; auroraauroral propagation; ionospheric propagation changes over the daydaily variation of ionospheric propagation; circular polarization
  • Removed questions: 5
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What do Hepburn maps predict?
  • Sporadic E propagation
  • Locations of auroral reflecting zones
  • Likelihood of rain scatter along cold or warm fronts
  • Probability of tropospheric propagation
REMOVED
Tropospheric propagation of microwave signals often occurs in association with what phenomenon?
  • Grayline
  • Lightning discharges
  • Warm and cold fronts
  • Sprites and jets
REMOVED
What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
  • Switch to a higher frequency HF band
  • Switch to a lower frequency HF band
  • Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
  • Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
REMOVED
Which type of atmospheric structure can create a path for microwave propagation?
  • The jet stream
  • Temperature inversion
  • Wind shear
  • Dust devil
REMOVED
What is the cause of auroral activity?
  • The interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
  • An extreme low-pressure area in the polar regions
  • The interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
  • Meteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?
  • 5002,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
  • 20002,000 miles, if the moon is at apogee
  • 50005,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
  • 12,000 miles, if the moon is “visible” by both stations
What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?
  • A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
  • A fluttery, irregular fading
  • A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
  • The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?
  • When the moonMoon is at perigee
  • When the moonMoon is full
  • When the moonMoon is at apogee
  • When the MUF is above 30 MHz
- NEW -
In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel?
  • It depends on the phase angle of the magnetic field
  • It travels parallel to the electric and magnetic fields
  • It depends on the phase angle of the electric field
  • It travels at a right angle to the electric and magnetic fields
- NEW -
How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?
  • They are parallel
  • They are tangential
  • They are at right angles
  • They are 90 degrees out of phase
- NEW -
What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?
  • Switch to a higher frequency HF band
  • Switch to a lower frequency HF band
  • Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle
  • Change to an antenna with greater beam width
Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?
  • Mountain ranges
  • ForestsStratocumulus clouds
  • Bodies Large bodies of water
  • Urban areasNimbus clouds
When a meteor strikes the Earth'’s atmosphere, a cylindrical linear ionized region of free electrons is formed at what layerregion of the ionosphere?
  • The E layerThe E region
  • The F1 layerThe F1 region
  • The F2 layerThe F2 region
  • The D layerThe D region
Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor -scatter communications?
  • 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
  • 10 MHz - 14 MHz
  • 28 MHz - 148 MHz
  • 220 MHz - 450 MHz
- NEW -
What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium?
  • Resistance and reactance
  • Evanescence
  • Birefringence
  • The index of refraction
What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?
  • 10 miles to 50 miles
  • 100 miles to 300 miles
  • 1200 miles1,200 miles
  • 2500 miles2,500 miles
- NEW -
What is most likely to result in auroral propagation?
  • Meteor showers
  • Quiet geomagnetic conditions
  • Severe geomagnetic storms
  • Extreme low-pressure areas in polar regions
Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?
  • CW
  • SSB
  • FM
  • RTTY
What is meant by are circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
  • Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
  • Waves with a rotating electric and magnetic fieldsfield
  • Waves that circle the Earth
  • Waves produced by a loop antenna
Section E3B
Transequatorial propagation; long-path propagation; ordinary and extraordinary waves; chordal hop; sporadic -E mechanisms; ground-wave propagation
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
What is transequatorial propagation?
  • Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between points located on the magnetic equator
  • Propagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point
  • Propagation between points at the same latitude
REMOVED
Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?
  • Only 160 meters to 40 meters
  • Only 30 meters to 10 meters
  • 160 meters to 10 meters
  • 6 meters to 2 meters
REMOVED
What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?
  • They are bent toward the magnetic poles
  • They become depolarized
  • They become elliptically polarized
  • They become phase locked
REMOVED
At what time of day can sporadic E propagation occur?
  • Only around sunset
  • Only around sunset and sunrise
  • Only in hours of darkness
  • Any time
- NEW -
Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur?
  • Between points separated by 2,000 miles to 3,000 miles over a path perpendicular to the geomagnetic equator
  • Between points located 1,500 miles to 2,000 miles apart on the geomagnetic equator
  • Between points located at each other’s antipode
  • Through the region where the terminator crosses the geographic equator
What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?
  • 1000 miles1,000 miles
  • 2500 miles2,500 miles
  • 5000 miles5,000 miles
  • 7500 miles7,500 miles
What is the best At what time of day foris transequatorial propagation most likely to occur??
  • Morning
  • Noon
  • Afternoon or early evening
  • Late at night
What is meant by the terms "are “extraordinary"” and "“ordinary"” waves?
  • Extraordinary waves describeexhibit rare long-skip propagation, compared to ordinary waves, which travel shorter distances
  • Independent Independently propagating, elliptically polarized waves created in the ionosphere that are elliptically polarized
  • Long-path and short-path waves
  • Refracted rays and reflected waves
- NEW -
Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?
  • A path entirely in sunlight
  • Paths at high latitudes
  • A direct north-south path
  • A path entirely in darkness
Which On which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides is long-path propagation most frequent??
  • 80 meters160 meters and 80 meters
  • 20 meters40 meters and 20 meters
  • 10 meters10 meters and 6 meters
  • 6 meters6 meters and 2 meters
- NEW -
What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?
  • Faraday rotation becomes stronger
  • The MUF decreases
  • The distance covered by each hop increases
  • The critical frequency increases
was E3C12
How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
  • It stays the same
  • It increases
  • It decreases
  • It peaks at roughly 8 MHz14 MHz
At what time of year is sporadic -E propagation most likely to occur?
  • Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
  • Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
  • Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
  • Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
Why is What is the effect of chordal -hop propagation? desirable?
  • The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using propagation, which uses Earth as a reflector
  • The MUF for chordal -hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
  • Atmospheric noise is lowerreduced in the direction of chordal -hop propagation
  • Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
- NEW -
At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
  • Between midnight and sunrise
  • Between sunset and midnight
  • Between sunset and sunrise
  • Between sunrise and sunset
What is the primary characteristic of chordal -hop propagation?
  • Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
  • Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
  • Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
  • Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
was E3C13
What type of polarization is best forsupported by ground-wave propagation?
  • Vertical
  • Horizontal
  • Circular
  • Elliptical
Section E3C
Radio horizon; ground wave; propagation prediction techniques and modelingPropagation prediction and reporting: radio horizon; effects of space -weather phenomenaparameters on propagation
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What does the radio communication term "ray tracing" describe?
  • The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern
  • Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
  • Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
  • Evaluating high voltage sources for x-rays
REMOVED
What does the space weather term "G5" mean?
  • An extreme geomagnetic storm
  • Very low solar activity
  • Moderate solar wind
  • Waning sunspot numbers
REMOVED
How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?
  • 10 percent greater
  • 50 percent greater
  • Twice as great
  • Four times as great
REMOVED
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
  • E-region skip
  • D-region skip
  • Due to the Doppler effect
  • Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere
- NEW -
What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts?
  • Coronal mass ejections
  • Sunspots on the solar equator
  • North-oriented interplanetary magnetic field
  • Solar flares
What is indicated by a rising A-index or K -index?
  • Increasing disruptiondisturbance of the geomagnetic field
  • Decreasing disruptiondisturbance of the geomagnetic field
  • Higher levels of solar UV radiation
  • An increase in the critical frequency
Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A -index or K -index is elevated?
  • Transequatorial
  • PolarThrough the auroral oval
  • Sporadic ESporadic-E
  • NVIS
What does the value of Bz (B sub Zz) represent?
  • Geomagnetic field stability
  • Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
  • Direction and North-south strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
  • Duration of long-delayed echoes
What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that incomingcharged particles from the sunSun will cause disturbed conditions?
  • Southward
  • Northward
  • Eastward
  • Westward
By how much How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon distance exceedcompare to the geometricgeographic horizon?
  • By It is approximately 15 percent fartherof the distance
  • By It is approximately 20 percent nearertwice the distance
  • By It is approximately 50 percent fartherof the distance
  • By They are approximately the samefour times the distance
Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?
  • Class A
  • Class BClass Z
  • Class M
  • Class X
- NEW -
Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?
  • B9
  • X5
  • M9
  • G5
- NEW -
What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks?
  • Solar flux
  • Electric field intensity
  • Magnetic declination
  • Digital-mode and CW signals
What does the 304A solar parameter measure?
  • The ratio of xX-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
  • UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
  • The solar wind velocity at an angle of 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to geomagnetic stormssolar activity
  • The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to xX-ray flare levels
What does VOACAP software model?
  • AC voltage and impedance
  • VHF radio propagation
  • HF propagation
  • AC current and impedance
was E3C15
What might be Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?
  • A temperature inversion has occurred
  • A A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
  • Increased transequatorial Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
  • Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
Subelement E4
AMATEUR PRACTICES
  • Removed questions: 10
  • New questions: 14
  • Updated questions: 15
  • Total questions: 64
Section E4A
Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum analyzers; antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; RF measurements; computer-aided measurements
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Which of the following measures SWR?
  • A spectrum analyzer
  • A Q meter
  • An ohmmeter
  • An antenna analyzer
REMOVED
Which of the following displays multiple digital signal states simultaneously?
  • Network analyzer
  • Bit error rate tester
  • Modulation monitor
  • Logic analyzer
REMOVED
How should an antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feed point impedance?
  • Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
  • Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
  • Loosely couple the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
  • Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?
  • Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
  • Analog-to-digital converter reference frequencyAmount of memory
  • Q of the circuit
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?
  • RFSignal amplitude and time
  • RFSignal amplitude and frequency
  • SWR and frequency
  • SWR and time
Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?
  • A wattmeterDifferential resolver
  • A spectrum Spectrum analyzer
  • A logic analyzerLogic analyzer
  • Network analyzerA time-domain reflectometer
How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?typically adjusted?
  • A square wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
  • A high frequency sine wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
  • A frequency standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
  • A DC voltage standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
What is the purpose of the using a prescaler function on with a frequency counter?
  • It amplifies Amplify low-level signals for more accurate counting
  • It multiplies Multiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
  • It prevents Prevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
  • It divides a higher Reduce the signal frequency signal so a low-frequency to within the counter's operating range can display the input frequency
What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?caused by setting the time base too slow?
  • A false, jittery low-frequency version of the signalwaveform is displayed
  • The waveform DC offset will be inaccurateAll signals will have a DC offset
  • Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
  • Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the waveformsignal
Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? to measure antenna SWR?
  • Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
  • Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automaticallydo not need an external RF source
  • Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following is used to measure SWR?
  • Directional wattmeter
  • Vector network analyzer
  • Antenna analyzer
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
  • KeepMinimize the signal ground connection length of the probe's ground connection as short as possible
  • Never use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
  • Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple?
  • Single-shot
  • Edge
  • Level
  • Line
- NEW -
Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?
  • Velocity factor
  • Cable length
  • Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
  • All these choices are correct
Section E4B
Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of Q; instrument calibration; S parameters; vector network analyzers; RF signals
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
  • There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
  • The transmitter is not properly neutralized
  • There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
  • There is more power going into the antenna
Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
  • Input attenuator accuracy
  • Time base accuracy
  • Decade divider accuracy
  • Temperature coefficient of the logic
What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
  • The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will indicate is the input impedance of the voltmeter
  • When used as a galvanometer, the The reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
  • When used as an ohmmeter, the The reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
  • When used as an ammeter, the The full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?
  • S11
  • S12
  • S21
  • S22
Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?
  • S11
  • S12
  • S21
  • S22
What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?
  • 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
  • Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
  • Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
  • 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
  • 100 watts
  • 125 watts
  • 25 watts112.5 watts
  • 75 watts
What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?
  • The port or ports at which measurements are made
  • The relative time between measurements
  • Relative quality of the data
  • Frequency order of the measurements
Which of the following can be used to measuredetermine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?
  • The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactanceThe inductance to capacitance ratio
  • The frequency shift
  • The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
  • The resonant frequency of the circuit
- NEW -
Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer?
  • Phase noise
  • Filter frequency response
  • Pulse rise time
  • Forward power
Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
  • Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
  • Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
  • Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
  • Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?
  • Input impedance
  • Output impedance
  • Reflection coefficient
  • All these choices are correct
Section E4C
Receiver performance characteristics: phase noise, noise floor, image rejection, MDS, minimum detectable signal (MDS), increasing signal-to-noise ratio and dynamic range, noise figure, reciprocal mixing; selectivity; effects of SDR receiver SDR non-linearity; use of attenuators at low frequencies
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
  • -174 dBm
  • -164 dBm
  • -155 dBm
  • -148 dBm
REMOVED
Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's dynamic range?
  • CPU register width in bits
  • Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
  • RAM speed used for data storage
  • Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits
REMOVED
What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and that uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
  • 13.845 MHz
  • 14.755 MHz
  • 14.445 MHz
  • 15.210 MHz
What is an effect of excessive phase noise in a an SDR receiver's local ’s master clock oscillator?
  • It limits the receiver'’s ability to receive strong signals
  • It can affect the receiver'’s frequency calibration
  • It decreases the receiver’s third-order intercept point
  • It can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?
  • A front-end filter or preselectorpre-selector
  • A narrow IF filter
  • A notch filter
  • A properly adjusted product detector
What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?
  • Desensitization
  • Cross-modulation interference
  • Capture effect
  • Frequency discrimination
What is the noise figure of a receiver?
  • The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
  • The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
  • The ratio of thermalin dB of the noise generated in the receiver to atmospheric noise
  • The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?
  • The receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimumThe minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
  • The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
  • The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
  • The galacticThe receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimumcontribution to minimum detectable signal
- NEW -
How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor?
  • 3 dB
  • 5 dB
  • 10 dB
  • 13 dB
What does the MDS of a receiver represent?
  • The meter display sensitivity
  • The minimum discernible signal
  • The multiplexThe modulation distortion specificationstability
  • The maximum detectable spectrum
An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?
  • One-half of the maximum sample rate
  • One-half of the maximum sampling buffer size
  • The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
  • The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequencyIF for the design of the IF in a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?
  • Fewer components in the receiver
  • Reduced drift
  • Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
  • Improved receiver noise figure
What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver IF bandwidths from which to select?
  • The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity
  • Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required
  • Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference
  • Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired
Why can an attenuator be used to Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?
  • The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
  • The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
  • Signals are attenuated separately from the noise
  • Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
was E4C13
How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
  • It improves sensitivity by reducing front -end noise
  • It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
  • It improves blocking dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
  • All these choices are correct
was E4C15
What is reciprocal mixing?
  • Two out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
  • In-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity
  • Two digital signals combining from alternate time slots
  • Local oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals
- NEW -
What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control?
  • To permit listening on a different frequency from the transmitting frequency
  • To change frequency rapidly
  • To reduce interference from stations transmitting on adjacent frequencies
  • To tune in stations slightly off frequency without changing the transmit frequency
Section E4D
Receiver performance characteristics: blocking dynamic range; intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; third-order intercept; desensitization; preselector; sensitivity; link margin
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
What is the term for spurious signals generated by the combination of two or more signals in a non-linear device or circuit?
  • Amplifier desensitization
  • Neutralization
  • Adjacent channel interference
  • Intermodulation
What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
  • The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal that will cause 1 dB of gain compression
  • The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals that will cause one signal to block the other
  • The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third-order intercept point
  • The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third-order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?
  • Spurious signals caused by cross- modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
  • Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
  • Cross-modulation of the desired signal andPoor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injectionaudio power to operate the speaker
  • Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
How canWhat creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity?occur?
  • When the repeaters are in close proximity and the The output signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
  • When the repeaters are in close proximity and the The output signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
  • The input frequencies are harmonically relatedWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
  • The output frequencies are harmonically relatedWhen the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
Which of the following may is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another a nearby transmitter? operating in close proximity?
  • A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
  • A properly terminated circulator at the output of the repeater'’s transmitter
  • Utilizing a Class C final amplifier
  • Utilizing a Class D final amplifier
What transmitter frequencies would causecreate an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
  • 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
  • 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
  • 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
  • 173.35146.30 MHz and 146.90 MHz139.40 MHz
was E4D12
What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?
  • Reciprocal mixingDesensitization
  • Quieting
  • DesensitizationCross-modulation interference
  • Cross modulation interferenceSquelch gain rollback
Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
  • Insert attenuation before the first RF stageDecrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
  • Raise the receiver’s IF frequency
  • Increase the receiver’s front -end gain
  • Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
  • Negative feedbackToo little gain
  • Lack of neutralization
  • Nonlinear circuits or devices
  • Positive feedback
What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?
  • To store frequencies that are often used-used frequencies
  • To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulationa range of AGC time constants
  • To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being receiveddesired band
  • To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
  • Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
  • The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
  • A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
  • A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?
  • Odd-order products of two signals in the band of interestbeing received are also likely to be within the band
  • Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters
  • Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
  • Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
- NEW -
What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB?
  • -8dB
  • -14dB
  • +8dB
  • +14dB
- NEW -
What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?
  • -51 dBm
  • -54 dBm
  • -57 dBm
  • -60 dBm
- NEW -
What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?
  • 100 microwatts
  • 0.1 microwatt
  • 0.001 microwatts
  • 0.1 picowatts
Section E4E
Noise suppression and interference: system noiseexternal RF interference; electrical appliance and computer noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP DSP filtering and noise reduction; common-mode current; surge protectors; single point ground panelnoise blankers; grounding for signals; common mode currents
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 6
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
  • Signals that are constant at all IF levels
  • Signals that appear across a wide bandwidth
  • Signals that appear at one IF but not another
  • Signals that have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
REMOVED
How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
  • By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and a blocking capacitor in the field lead
  • By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
  • By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
  • By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?
  • Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
  • Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
  • Excessive ringingReceived CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
  • All these choices are correctRinging in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced withby a digital signal processing noise reduction?filter?
  • Broadband white noise
  • Ignition noise
  • Power line noise
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?
  • Broadband white noise
  • Impulse noise
  • Hum and buzz
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?
  • By installing filter capacitors in series with the alternator leads
  • By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor at the battery
  • By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio’s power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the antenna feed line
  • By installing ferrite chokes on the charging system leads
How can What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from an a line-driven AC motor? be suppressed?
  • By installing a A high-pass filter in series with the motor'’s power leads
  • By installing a A brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor ’s power leads
  • By installing a A bypass capacitor in series with the motor’s field winding leads
  • A bypass choke in parallel with the motor’s field windingBy using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
What is one type of electrical interference that might can be caused by computer network equipment?a nearby personal computer?
  • A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station’s receiver
  • A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
  • The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
  • A whining -type noise that continually pulses off and on
Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?
  • Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
  • Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
  • Use of braided shielding material
  • Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductormulticonductor cable?
  • Differential-mode current
  • Common-mode current
  • Reactive current only
  • Return currentMagnetically-coupled current only
What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF a noise blanker?
  • Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
  • The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
  • NearbyStrong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissionsappear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
  • FM signals can no longer be demodulated
What might be the cause of a Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference? that comes and goes at intervals?
  • Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
  • A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
  • A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
  • All these choices are correct
What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals to combine combining to generate spurious signals inon the MF or HF bands?
  • One or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal
  • Nearby corroded metal jointsconnections are mixing and re-radiatingreradiating the broadcast signals
  • You are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
  • Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is overloadeddefective
- NEW -
What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range?
  • Switch-mode power supplies
  • Radar transmitters
  • Wireless security camera transmitters
  • Electric fences
- NEW -
Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?
  • At the AC service panel
  • At an AC outlet
  • On the single point ground panel
  • On a ground rod outside the station
- NEW -
What is the purpose of a single point ground panel?
  • Remove AC power in case of a short-circuit
  • Prevent common-mode transients in multi-wire systems
  • Eliminate air gaps between protected and non-protected circuits
  • Ensure all lightning protectors activate at the same time
Subelement E5
ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
  • Removed questions: 15
  • New questions: 9
  • Updated questions: 7
  • Total questions: 49
Section E5A
Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits:; series and parallel resonance; definitions and effects of Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
What is resonance in an LC or RLC circuit?
  • The highest frequency that will pass current
  • The lowest frequency that will pass current
  • The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
  • The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance
REMOVED
How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
  • Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
  • Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
REMOVED
Which of the following increases Q for inductors and capacitors?
  • Lower losses
  • Lower reactance
  • Lower self-resonant frequency
  • Higher self-resonant frequency
What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?
  • Resonance
  • Capacitance
  • ConductanceLow quality factor (Q)
  • Resistance
was E5A14
What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?
  • 44.72 MHz
  • 22.36 MHz
  • 3.56 MHz
  • 1.78 MHz
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?
  • High, as compared to the circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
  • Approximately equal to inductive reactance
  • Approximately equal to circuit resistance
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
  • Approximately equal to circuit resistance
  • Approximately equal to inductive reactance
  • Low compared to the circuit resistance
  • High compared to the circuit resistance
What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?
  • Matching bandwidth is decreased
  • Matching bandwidth is increased
  • Losses increaseMatching range is increased
  • Harmonics increaseIt has no effect on impedance matching
What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
  • It is at a minimum
  • It is at a maximum
  • It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, multiplied by times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
  • It equals 2 multiplied by pi, multiplied by frequency, times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)inductance
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?
  • Minimum
  • Maximum
  • R/L
  • L/R
What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?
  • The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
  • The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
  • The voltage and current are in phase
  • The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
  • Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
  • Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
  • Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
was E5A16
What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?
  • 23.5 MHz7.12 MHz
  • 23.5 kHz
  • 7.12 kHz
  • 7.12 MHz23.5 MHz
What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
  • 157.8 Hz
  • 315.6 Hz
  • 47.3 kHz
  • 23.67 kHz
What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
  • 436.6 kHz
  • 218.3 kHz
  • 31.4 kHz
  • 15.7 kHz
What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?
  • Fewer components are needed for the same performance
  • Parasitic effects are minimized
  • Internal voltages increase
  • Phase shift can become uncontrolled
Section E5B
Time constants and phase relationships: RL and RC time constants; phase angle in reactive circuits and components; admittance and susceptance
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
REMOVED
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?
  • 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
  • An exponential rate of one
  • One time constant
  • One exponential period
  • A time factor of one
What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?
  • G
  • X
  • Y
  • B
How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?
  • Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
  • Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle
  • Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
  • Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
  • 55 seconds
  • 110 seconds
  • 440 seconds
  • 220 seconds
What happens to is the effect on the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?
  • It is unchanged
  • The sign is reversed
  • It is shifted by 90 degrees
  • It becomes the It is replaced by its reciprocal
What is susceptance?
  • The magnetic impedance of a circuit
  • The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
  • The imaginary part of admittance
  • A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?
  • 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
- NEW -
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?
  • 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?
  • Voltage and current are in phase
  • Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
  • Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
  • Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?
  • Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
  • Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
  • Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
  • Voltage and current are in phase
- NEW -
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?
  • 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
  • 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
  • 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
What is admittance?
  • The inverse of impedance
  • The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
  • The inverse of reactanceThe turns ratio of a transformer
  • The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistorThe inverse of Q factor
Section E5C
Coordinate systems and phasors in electronics: rectangular coordinates; polar coordinates; phasors; logarithmic axesRectangular Coordinates; Polar Coordinates; Phasors
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?
  • -jX
  • +jX
  • Delta
  • Omega
REMOVED
What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of impedance?
  • Maidenhead grid
  • Faraday grid
  • Elliptical coordinates
  • Rectangular coordinates
- NEW -
Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?
  • 0 - j100
  • 0 + j100
  • 100 - j0
  • 100 + j0
How are impedances described in polar coordinates?
  • By X and R values
  • By real and imaginary parts
  • By By magnitude and phase angle and magnitude
  • By Y and G values
Which of the following represents an a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?
  • A positive 45 degree phase anglemagnitude
  • A negative 45 degree phase anglemagnitude
  • A positive 90 degree phase angle
  • A negative 90 degree phase angle
- NEW -
What type of Y-axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response?
  • Linear
  • Scatter
  • Random
  • Logarithmic
What is the name of the kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?
  • Venn diagram
  • Near field diagram
  • Phasor diagram
  • Far field diagram
What does the impedance 50-j25 - j25 ohms represent?
  • 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
  • 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
  • 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
  • 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?
  • On the vertical axis
  • On a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees
  • On a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis
  • On the horizontal axis
What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?
  • Maidenhead grid
  • Faraday grid
  • Elliptical coordinates
  • Polar coordinates
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?
  • The X axis represents the resistive component, and the Y axis represents the reactive component
  • The X axis represents the reactive component, and the Y axis represents the resistive component
  • The X axis represents the phase angle, and the Y axis represents the magnitude
  • The X axis represents the magnitude, and the Y axis represents the phase angle
Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?
  • Point 2
  • Point 4
  • Point 5
  • Point 6
Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 7
  • Point 8
Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?
  • Point 1
  • Point 3
  • Point 7
  • Point 8
Section E5D
AC and RF energy in real RF effects in components and circuits: skin effect; electromagnetic fields;real and reactive power; power factor; electrical length of conductors at UHF and microwave frequencies; microstrip
  • Removed questions: 8
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 1.73
  • 0.5
  • 0.866
  • 0.577
REMOVED
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?
  • In the same direction as the current
  • In a direction opposite to the current
  • In all directions; omni-directional
  • In a circle around the conductor
REMOVED
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500VA?
  • 704 W
  • 355 W
  • 252 W
  • 1.42 mW
REMOVED
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?
  • 200 watts
  • 1000 watts
  • 1600 watts
  • 600 watts
REMOVED
How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase?
  • By multiplying the apparent power by the power factor
  • By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
  • By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
  • By multiplying the reactive power by the power factor
REMOVED
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 60-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 1.414
  • 0.866
  • 0.5
  • 1.73
REMOVED
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?
  • 400 watts
  • 80 watts
  • 2000 watts
  • 50 watts
REMOVED
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?
  • 0.866
  • 1.0
  • 0.5
  • 0.707
What is the result of conductor skin effect?
  • As Resistance increases as frequency increases, because RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
  • As frequency Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
  • Thermal effects on the surface Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficientconductor increase the impedance
  • Thermal effects on the surface Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficientconductor decrease the impedance
Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?
  • To increase the thermal time constant
  • To avoid unwanted To minimize inductive reactance
  • To maintain component lifetime
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?
  • They are out of phase
  • They are in phase
  • They are 90 degrees out of phase
  • They are 45 degrees out of phase
Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?
  • To increase neutralizing resistance
  • To reduce phase shift along the connection
  • To increase compensating capacitance
  • To reduce noise figure
- NEW -
What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?
  • Skin effect
  • Shunt capacitance
  • Inductance
  • Dielectric leakage
was E6D13
What is the primary cause of parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self-resonance?
  • Inter-turn capacitanceSkin effect
  • Dielectric lossThe skin effect
  • Inductive kickbackCoupling
  • Inter-turn capacitanceNon-linear core hysteresis
- NEW -
What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?
  • The component’s resistance and reactance
  • The component’s nominal and parasitic reactance
  • The component’s inductance and capacitance
  • The component’s electrical length and impedance
- NEW -
What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF?
  • Inductance
  • Dielectric loss
  • Self-discharge
  • Skin effect
What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?
  • It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
  • It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated Energy is stored in magnetic andor electric fields, but power is not dissipated
  • It is dissipated as kinetic energycanceled by Coulomb forces in the capacitor and inductorcircuit
  • It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
- NEW -
As a conductor’s diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?
  • Thickness has no effect on electrical length
  • It varies randomly
  • It decreases
  • It increases
was E5D13
How many watts are How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
  • 70.7 watts
  • 100 watts
  • 141.4 watts
  • 200 watts
was E5D14
What is reactive power?
  • Power consumed in circuit QWattless, nonproductive power
  • Power consumed in by an inductor’s wire resistance in an inductor
  • The power consumed in inductors and capacitorsPower lost because of capacitor leakage
  • Wattless, nonproductive powerPower consumed in circuit Q
Subelement E6
CIRCUIT COMPONENTS
  • Removed questions: 9
  • New questions: 10
  • Updated questions: 14
  • Total questions: 69
Section E6A
Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type; transistor bipolar junction transistors; operation and types: NPN, PNP, junction, of field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 12
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?
  • In high-current rectifier circuits
  • In high-power audio circuits
  • In microwave circuits
  • In very low-frequency RF circuits
Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?
  • N-type
  • P-type
  • Bipolar
  • Insulated gate
Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
  • Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
  • Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
  • Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
  • Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
  • Insulator impurity
  • N-type impurity
  • Acceptor impurity
  • Donor impurity
How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with the DC input impedance that of a bipolar transistor?
  • They are both low impedance
  • An FET has lower input impedance
  • An FET has higher input impedance
  • They are both high impedance
What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?
  • The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
  • The change in collector current with respect to the change in base current
  • The breakdown voltage of the base to -to-collector junction
  • The switching speed
Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
  • Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 ohms to 7 ohms
  • Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 ohms to 0.7 ohms
  • Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 volts to 7 volts
  • Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 volts to 0.7 volts
What is the term indicatesfor the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
  • Corner frequency
  • Alpha rejection frequency
  • Beta cutoff frequency
  • Alpha cutoff frequency
What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)?FET?
  • An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
  • An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
  • AnyAn FET that exhibits very high electron mobility due to a lack of holes in the N-type materialwithout a channel
  • AnyAn FET for which holes are the majority carriers
In Figure E6-1, whatwhich is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
In Figure E6-1, whatwhich is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 6
Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain?on the gates?
  • To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
  • To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
  • To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
  • To reduceTo protect the chance ofgate from static damage to the gate
Section E6B
Diodes
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?
  • Reverse bias
  • Forward bias
  • Zero bias
  • Inductive bias
REMOVED
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
  • 1
  • 5
  • 6
  • 7
What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
  • A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
  • A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
  • A negative resistance region
  • An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
What is an important Which characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode when usedfor use as a power supply rectifier?
  • Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
  • More constant reverse avalanche voltage
  • Longer carrier retention time
  • LessLower forward voltage drop
- NEW -
What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop?
  • Intrinsic resistance
  • Band gap
  • Junction capacitance
  • Junction depth
What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?
  • Varactor diode
  • Tunnel diode
  • Silicon-controlled rectifier
  • Zener diode
What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?
  • Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
  • Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
  • Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
  • Low junction capacitance
- NEW -
Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?
  • In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
  • As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
  • In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
  • As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
What is the failure mechanism when causes a junction diode fails due toto fail from excessive current?
  • Excessive inverse voltage
  • Excessive junction temperature
  • Insufficient forward voltage
  • Charge carrier depletion
Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?
  • Metal-semiconductor junction
  • Electrolytic rectifier
  • PIN junction
  • Thermionic emission diode
What is a common use for point-contact diodes?
  • As a constant current source
  • As a constant voltage source
  • As an RF detector
  • As a high-voltage rectifier
- NEW -
In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?
  • 1
  • 6
  • 2
  • 3
What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
  • Forward DC bias current
  • A variable RF reference voltageA sub-harmonic pump signal
  • Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
  • Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
Section E6C
Digital ICs: Familiesfamilies of digital ICs; gates; programmable logic devicesProgrammable Logic Devices (PLDs)
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 0
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?
  • Differential output capability
  • Lower distortion
  • Immune to damage from static discharge
  • Lower power consumption
REMOVED
What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?
  • A logic circuit that can be modified during use
  • A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit
  • Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
  • A type of transistor whose gain can be changed by digital logic circuits
What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?
  • To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
  • To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals
  • To cause the output to continually change states continually
  • To increase the sensitivity
What happens when the level of a comparator'’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage??
  • The IC input can be damaged
  • The comparator changes its output state
  • The reference level appears at the outputThe comparator enters latch-up
  • The feedback loop becomes unstable
What is tri-state logic?
  • Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
  • Logic devices that utilize ternary math
  • Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedanceLow-power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
  • A counter with eight statesProprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?
  • Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
  • It is immune to electrostatic damage
  • It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?
  • Schottky TTL
  • ECL
  • NMOS
  • CMOS
Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
  • Large bypass capacitance is inherent
  • The input switching threshold is about two times twice the power supply voltage
  • The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
  • Bandwidth is very limited
What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?
  • A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
  • A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
  • A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
  • A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
In Figure E6-3, whatwhich is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
- NEW -
What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?
  • Karnaugh maps
  • Hardware description language (HDL)
  • An auto-router
  • Machine and assembly language
In Figure E6-3, whatwhich is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
In Figure E6-3, whatwhich is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?inverter)?
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6
Section E6D
ToroidalInductors and Solenoidal Inductorspiezoelectricity: permeability, core material, selecting, winding and configuration; transformers; piezoelectric devices
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?
  • Harmonics and distortion could result
  • Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
  • RF susceptance would increase
  • Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
REMOVED
Which materials are commonly used as a core in an inductor?
  • Polystyrene and polyethylene
  • Ferrite and brass
  • Teflon and Delrin
  • Cobalt and aluminum
REMOVED
What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?
  • Powdered-iron cores generally have greater initial permeability
  • Powdered-iron cores generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
  • Powdered-iron cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance
  • Powdered-iron cores use smaller diameter wire for the same inductance
REMOVED
What is inductor saturation?
  • The inductor windings are over-coupled
  • The inductor's voltage rating is exceeded causing a flashover
  • The ability of the inductor's core to store magnetic energy has been exceeded
  • Adjacent inductors become over-coupled
- NEW -
What is piezoelectricity?
  • The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
  • A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
  • A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
  • The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied
What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in Series RLC in parallel with a shunt capacitorC representing electrode and stray capacitance
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing Parallel RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
  • Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing Series RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance all in series
  • Motional inductance and loss resistance inParallel RLC, where C is the series, paralleled with motional combination of resonance capacitance and a capacitor representingof the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?
  • Mechanical deformation of material by due to the application of a voltage
  • Mechanical deformation of material by due to the application of a magnetic field
  • Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
  • Increased conductivity in the presence of light
- NEW -
Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?
  • To simplify assembly during manufacturing
  • To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core
  • To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance
  • To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material
What is one reason for using ferrite cores rather than powdered iron How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core??
  • Ferrite toroidscores generally have lower initial permeability
  • Ferrite toroidscores generally have better temperature stability
  • Ferrite toroidscores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
  • Ferrite toroidscores are easier to use with surface -mount technology
What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?
  • Thermal impedancePermittivity
  • Resistance
  • Reactivity
  • Permeability
What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer called if when there is no load is attached to on the secondary winding??
  • MagnetizingStabilizing current
  • Direct current
  • Excitation current
  • StabilizingMagnetizing current
- NEW -
Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?
  • Brass
  • Powdered iron
  • Ferrite
  • Aluminum
What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?
  • Electrolytic capacitors
  • Butterworth filters
  • Ferrite beads
  • Steel-core toroids
What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?
  • Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
  • Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
  • Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
  • Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?
  • Ceramic
  • Brass
  • Ferrite
  • Powdered ironAluminum
- NEW -
What causes inductor saturation?
  • Operation at too high a frequency
  • Selecting a core with low permeability
  • Operation at excessive magnetic flux
  • Selecting a core with excessive permittivity
Section E6E
Semiconductor materials and packages for RF useAnalog ICs: MMICs, IC packaging characteristics
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 12
Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?
  • Higher noise figures
  • Higher electron mobility
  • Lower junction voltage drop
  • Lower transconductance
Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?
  • DIP
  • PLCC
  • Ball grid arrayBGA
  • SOT
Which of the following materials is likely to provide supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
  • Silicon
  • Silicon nitride
  • Silicon dioxide
  • Gallium nitride
Which is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
  • 50 ohms
  • 300 ohms
  • 450 ohms
  • 10 ohms75 ohms
Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
  • 2 dB0.5 dB
  • -10 dB
  • 44 dBm
  • -20 dBm
What characteristics of the MMIC MMICs make itthem a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
  • The ability to retrieve information from a single signal, even in the presence of other strong signals
  • Extremely high Q factor and high stability over a wide temperature rangePlate current that is controlled by a control grid
  • Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
  • Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?
  • Miniature coax
  • Circular waveguide
  • Parallel wire
  • Microstrip
How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?
  • Through a resistor and/orcapacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier outputinput lead
  • MMICs require no operating bias
  • Through a capacitor andresistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier inputoutput lead
  • Directly to the bias voltage (VCC INVcc) lead
Which of the following component package types would be most suitable for use have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?
  • TO-220
  • Axial lead
  • Radial lead
  • Surface mount
What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?
  • Smaller circuit area
  • Shorter circuit- board traces
  • Components have less parasitic inductance and capacitance
  • All these choices are correct
What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?
  • Extremely low stray capacitance (dielectrically isolated package)Package mounts in a direct inverted position
  • Low leakage Extremely high resistance between pins (doubly insulated package)
  • Two chips in each package (dual in package)Dual In Package)
  • A total of two Two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual Indual in-line package)Package)
Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?
  • Too many pinsExcessive dielectric loss
  • Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz
  • Excessive lead length
  • Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals
Section E6F
Electro-optical technology: photoconductivity; photovoltaic devices; optical sensors and encoders; optically isolated switchingoptical isolation
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 3
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?
  • It increases
  • It decreases
  • It stays the same
  • It becomes unstable
What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
  • Protons
  • Photons
  • Electrons
  • Holes
- NEW -
What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?
  • Resistance decreases
  • Resistance increases
  • Reflectivity increases
  • Reflectivity decreases
What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
  • A lens and a photomultiplier
  • A frequency -modulated helium-neon laser
  • An amplitude -modulated helium-neon laser
  • An LED and a phototransistor
What is the photovoltaic effect?
  • The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
  • The conversion of light to electrical energy
  • The effect that causes a photodiode to emit light when a voltage is appliedThe conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
  • The tendency of a battery to dischargeThe effect that causes a phototransistor’s beta to decrease when exposed to light
Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
  • A device that detects rotation of a control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
  • A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog to -to-digital conversion
  • A digital encryptionAn optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber opticsoften used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
  • A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?
  • Polyphenol acetateA crystalline semiconductor
  • An ordinary metalArgon
  • A heavy metalCrystalline semiconductor
  • All these choices are correctA liquid semiconductor
What is a solid-state relay?
  • A relay using that uses transistors to drive the relay coil
  • A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
  • A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
  • A semiconductor switch that uses a monostable multivibrator circuitpassive delay line
Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits when switchingthat control 120 VAC circuits??
  • Optoisolators provide a low -impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
  • Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
  • Optoisolators provide a very high degree of an electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
  • Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
  • The output RF power divided by the input DC power
  • The output in lumens divided by the input power in wattsCost per kilowatt-hour generated
  • The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
  • The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell material used for electrical in power-generating photovoltaic cells? generation?
  • Selenium
  • Silicon
  • Cadmium sulfideSulfide
  • Copper oxideIndium arsenide
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
  • 0.1 V0.5 volts
  • 0.5 V0.7 volts
  • 1.5 V1.1 volts
  • 12 V1.5 volts
Subelement E7
PRACTICAL CIRCUITS
  • Removed questions: 20
  • New questions: 11
  • Updated questions: 31
  • Total questions: 99
Section E7A
Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits; classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 8
REMOVED
What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?
  • Reverse Logic
  • Assertive Logic
  • Negative logic
  • Positive Logic
Which circuit is bistable?
  • An AND gate
  • An OR gate
  • A flip-flop
  • A bipolar amplifier
What is the function of a decade counter?
  • It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
  • It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
  • It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
  • It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?
  • An XOR gate
  • A flip-flop
  • An OR gate
  • A multiplexer
- NEW -
How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?
  • 4
  • 6
  • 8
  • 16
Which of the following is a circuit that circuits continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal??
  • Monostable multivibrator
  • J-K flip-flop
  • T flip-flop
  • Astable multivibrator
What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
  • It switches momentarily to the opposite binary temporarily to an alternate state and then returns to its original state after for a set time
  • It produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0
  • It stores one bit of data in either a 0 or 1 state
  • It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?
  • It produces logica 0 at its output only whenif all inputs are 0logic 0
  • It produces logica 1 at its output only whenif all inputs are 1logic 1
  • It produces logica 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1logic 1
  • It produces logica 0 at its output only whenif all inputs are 1logic 1
What logical operation does an OR gate perform?
  • It produces logica 1 at its output if any input is 1or all inputs are logic 1
  • It produces logica 0 at its output if all inputs are 1logic 1
  • It only It produces logica 0 at its output when if some but not all inputs are 1logic 1
  • It produces logica 1 at its output if all inputs are 0logic 0
What logical operation is performed by an a two-input exclusive NOR gate?
  • It produces logica 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0logic 0
  • It produces logica 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1logic 1
  • It produces logica 0 at its output if one and only one of its inputs is 1input is logic 1
  • It produces logica 1 at its output if one and only one input is 1logic 1
What is a truth table?
  • A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp
  • A diagram showing logic states when the A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device output is true
  • A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is trueA list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
  • A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
- NEW -
What does “positive logic” mean in reference to logic devices?
  • The logic devices have high noise immunity
  • High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
  • The logic circuit is in the “true” condition
  • 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels
Section E7B
Amplifiers: Classclass of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers; switching-type amplifiers
  • Removed questions: 8
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
Which of the following components form the output of a class D amplifier circuit?
  • A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
  • A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
  • A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
  • A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
REMOVED
Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?
  • Push-push
  • Push-pull
  • Class C
  • Class AB
REMOVED
How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?
  • By increasing the driving power
  • By reducing the driving power
  • By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
  • By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
REMOVED
Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?
  • The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
  • The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
  • The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
  • The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current
REMOVED
Which of the following describes an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?
  • A two-transistor amplifier with the emitters sharing a common bias resistor
  • A differential amplifier with both inputs fed to the emitter of the input transistor
  • An OR circuit with only one emitter used for output
  • An amplifier with a low impedance output that follows the base input voltage
REMOVED
What is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
  • Neutralization
  • Select transistors with high beta
  • Use a resistor in series with the emitter
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?
  • Transmission of spurious signals
  • Creation of parasitic oscillations
  • Low efficiency
  • All these choices are correct
REMOVED
Why are odd-order rather than even-order intermodulation distortion products of concern in linear power amplifiers?
  • Because they are relatively close in frequency to the desired signal
  • Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
  • Because they invert the sidebands causing distortion
  • Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate signals
For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?
  • More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
  • Exactly 180 degrees
  • The entire cycle
  • Less than 180 degrees
What is a Class D amplifier?
  • A type of An amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
  • A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
  • An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
  • An amplifier biased to be relatively free from distortionA frequency doubling amplifier
- NEW -
What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?
  • A filter to remove harmonic content
  • A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
  • A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
  • A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
Where onWhat is the load lineoperating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? would bias normally be set?
  • Approximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
  • Where the load line intersectsApproximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage axis
  • At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
  • At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
  • Tune the stage for minimum loadingmaximum SWR
  • Tune both the input and output for maximum power
  • Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
  • Use a phase inverter in the output filter
was E7B18
What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
  • High power gain
  • Low input impedanceHigh filament voltage
  • High electrostatic damage protectionLow input impedance
  • Low bandwidth
Which of the following is athe likely result when of using a Class C amplifier is used to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
  • Reduced intermodulation products
  • Increased overall intelligibility
  • Reduced third-order intermodulationSignal inversion
  • Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
was E7B14
Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?
  • Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
  • The power transistorThe switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time
  • Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
  • Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
- NEW -
What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?
  • Low input impedance and phase inversion from input to output
  • Differential inputs and single output
  • Acts as an OR circuit if one input is grounded
  • Input and output signals in-phase
In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
  • Load resistors
  • Voltage divider bias
  • Self bias
  • Feedback
In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?
  • Fixed bias
  • Emitter bypass
  • Output load resistor
  • Self bias
What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?
  • Common base
  • Common collector
  • Common emitter
  • Emitter follower
Section E7C
Filters and matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics; impedance matching; DSP filtering
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 7
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
  • The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
  • The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
  • The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
  • The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
REMOVED
What is a crystal lattice filter?
  • A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
  • An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
  • A filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
  • A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
REMOVED
What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
  • The Q of Pi-networks can be controlled
  • L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation
  • Pi-networks are more stable
  • Pi-networks provide balanced input and output
How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network'’s input and output?
  • Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
  • Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
  • An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
  • A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between the input and output
Which ofWhat is the following is a property frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor?
  • It is a low-pass filterLow-pass
  • It is a band-pass filterHigh-pass
  • It is a high-pass filterBand-pass
  • It is a notch filterNotch
What advantage does a series-L Pi-L-network have over a series-L is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?
  • Greater harmonic suppression
  • Higher efficiency
  • Does not require a To eliminate one capacitor
  • Greater transformation range
How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?
  • It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
  • It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
  • It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to athe desired value
  • Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
Which filter type is described as having has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?
  • A Butterworth filter
  • An active LC filter
  • A passive op-amp filter
  • A Chebyshev filter
What are the distinguishing features characteristics of an ellipticalelliptic filter?
  • Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop -band ripple
  • Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop -band corners
  • Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
  • Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop -band ripple
Which describes a Pi-L- network? used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?
  • A Phase Inverter Load network
  • A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor on the output
  • A network with only three discrete parts
  • A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
- NEW -
Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?
  • A Sallen-Key filter
  • A helical filter
  • A swinging choke filter
  • A finite impulse response filter
- NEW -
What is a crystal lattice filter?
  • A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
  • An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
  • A filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
  • A filter for low-level signals made using quartz crystals
Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use is used in a 2 -meter band repeater duplexer?
  • A crystal filter
  • A cavity filter
  • A DSP filter
  • An L-C filter
Which of the following describes a receiving measures a filter'’s ability to reject signals occupying an in adjacent channels?channel?
  • Passband ripple
  • Phase response
  • Shape factor
  • Noise factor
Section E7D
Power supplies and voltage regulators; Solarsolar array charge controllers
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
What is a characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?
  • The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
  • It is generally less efficient than a linear regulator
  • The controlled device's duty cycle is changed to produce a constant average output voltage
  • It gives a ramp voltage at its output
REMOVED
Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?
  • A series current source
  • A series regulator
  • A shunt regulator
  • A shunt current source
REMOVED
What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?
  • Prevention of battery undercharge
  • Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge
  • Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge
  • Matching of day and night charge rates
REMOVED
What is the function of the pass transistor in a linear voltage regulator circuit?
  • Permits a wide range of output voltage settings
  • Provides a stable input impedance over a wide range of source voltage
  • Maintains nearly constant output impedance over a wide range of load current
  • Maintains nearly constant output voltage over a wide range of load current
How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?
  • It has a ramp voltage as its output
  • It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
  • The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
  • The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
- NEW -
How does a switchmode voltage regulator work?
  • By alternating the output between positive and negative voltages
  • By varying the duty cycle of pulses input to a filter
  • By varying the conductivity of a pass element
  • By switching between two Zener diode reference voltages
What device is typically used as a stable voltage reference? in a linear voltage regulator?
  • A Zener diode
  • A tunnel diodeA digital-to-analog converter
  • An SCR
  • An analog-to-digital converterA varactor diode
- NEW -
Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?
  • A series current source
  • A series regulator
  • A shunt regulator
  • A shunt current source
Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on operates by loading the unregulated voltage source?
  • A constant current source
  • A series regulator
  • A shunt current source
  • A shunt regulator
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?
  • It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
  • It provides a constant load for the voltage source
  • It controls the current to keep the output voltage constantsupplied to the load
  • It provides regulation by switching or “chopping” the input DC voltageD1 with current
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?
  • It bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
  • It is a brute force filter for the output
  • To To prevent self-oscillationresonate at the hum frequency
  • To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?
  • Switching voltage regulator
  • GroundedCommon emitter amplifier
  • Linear voltage regulator
  • Common base amplifierMonostable multivibrator
- NEW -
How is battery operating time calculated?
  • Average current divided by capacity in amp-hours
  • Average current divided by internal resistance
  • Capacity in amp-hours divided by average current
  • Internal resistance divided by average current
What is the primary reason that a high-frequency Why is a switching type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional than an equivalent linear power supply?
  • The inverter design does not require anyan output filter circuitfiltering
  • It The control circuitry uses less current, therefore smaller heat sinks are requireda diode bridge rectifier for increased output
  • The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
  • It uses a large It recovers power factor compensation capacitor to recover power from the unused portion of the AC cycle, thus using fewer components
- NEW -
What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output?
  • Reduce AC ripple on the output
  • Maintain voltage with varying illumination levels
  • Prevent discharge when panel is not illuminated
  • Convert the panel’s output from DC to AC
What is the dropout voltage of an analoga linear voltage regulator?
  • Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
  • Maximum output voltage dropsdrop when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
  • Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
  • Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
What isWhich of the equation for calculating following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?
  • Input voltage multiplied by input current
  • Input voltage divided by output current
  • Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
  • Output voltage multiplied by output current
What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?
  • Equalize the voltage across each capacitor
  • Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
  • Provide a minimum load on the supply
  • All these choices are correct
What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?
  • To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
  • To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
  • To allow for remote control of the To prevent arcing across the input power switch or relay contactssupply
  • To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
Section E7E
Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase, and balanced modulators; detectors; mixersmixer stages
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 11
Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals?emissions?
  • A balanced modulator on Balanced modulation of the audio amplifier
  • A reactance modulator on theReactance modulation of a local oscillator
  • A reactance modulator on Reactance modulation of the final amplifier
  • A balanced modulator on theBalanced modulation of a local oscillator
What is the function of a reactance modulator?
  • To produce PM Produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable varying a resistance
  • To produce Produce AM signals by using an electrically variable varying an inductance or capacitance
  • To produce Produce AM signals by using an electrically variable varying a resistance
  • To produce Produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or varying a capacitance
What is a frequency discriminator? stage in a FM receiver?
  • An FM generator circuit
  • A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
  • An automatic band-switching circuit
  • A circuit for detecting FM signals
What is one way to produce a single-sideband phone signal? can be generated?
  • By using Use a balanced modulator followed by a filter
  • By using Use a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
  • By using Use a loop modulator followed by a mixer
  • By driving Use a product detector with a DSB signal
What circuit is added to an FM transmitter speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?
  • A de-emphasis network
  • A harmonic enhancerA heterodyne suppressor
  • A heterodyne enhancer
  • A pre-emphasis network
Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
  • For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
  • To reduce impulse noise reception
  • For higher efficiency
  • To remove third-order distortion products
What is meant by the term "“baseband"” in radio communications?
  • The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
  • The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
  • The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
  • The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? circuit?
  • Two and four times the originalinput frequency
  • The square root of the product of input frequencies
  • The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
  • 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
What occurs when an excessive amount of the input signal energy reacheslevels to a mixer are too high?circuit?
  • Spurious mixer products are generated
  • Mixer blanking occurs
  • Automatic limiting occurs
  • A beat frequency is Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated
How does a diode envelope detector function?
  • By rectification and filtering of RF signals
  • By breakdown of the Zener voltage
  • By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
  • By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
Which type of detector circuit is used for demodulating SSB signals?
  • Discriminator
  • Phase detector
  • Product detector
  • Phase comparator
Section E7F
DSP filtering and other operations; software defined radio fundamentals; DSP Software defined radio fundamentals: digital signal processing (DSP) filtering, modulation, and demodulation; analog-digital conversion; digital filters
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 8
  • Total questions: 14
What is meant by “direct digital conversion as applied to sampling” in software defined radios?
  • Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
  • I and Q signals are generated by digital processing without the use of RF amplificationIncoming RF is converted to a control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
  • Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
  • A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
  • An adaptive filter
  • A crystal-lattice filter
  • A Hilbert-transform filter
  • A phase-inverting filter
What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?
  • An adaptive filter
  • A notch filter
  • A Hilbert-transform filter
  • An elliptical filter
What is a common Which method of generating generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?
  • Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
  • A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands
  • Varying quartz crystal characteristics are emulated in digital form
  • Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can to be accurately reproduced?
  • At least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
  • At least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
  • At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
  • At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?
  • 4 bits
  • 6 bits
  • 8 bits
  • 10 bits
What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?
  • Converting analog signals to digital form
  • Converting digital signals to analog form
  • Converting digital signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
  • Converting signals from the frequency domain to the time domain8-bit data to 16-bit data
What is the function of decimation?
  • Converting data to binary code -coded decimal form
  • Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
  • Attenuating the signal
  • Removing unnecessary significant digits
Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?
  • It removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
  • It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
  • It removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration
  • It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?Direct Digital Conversion SDR?
  • Sample rate
  • Sample width in bits
  • Integral non-linearitySample clock phase noise
  • Differential non-linearityProcessor latency
What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling SDR software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?
  • Sample clock phase noise
  • Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
  • Data storage transfer rate
  • Missing codes and jitter
Which of the following is an advantage of a generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?
  • FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
  • FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
  • FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
  • All these choices are correct
What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?
  • To reduce excess signal pressure levels
  • Provide access for debugging software
  • Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
  • Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?
  • Higher data rate
  • More taps
  • Complex phasor representationsLower Q
  • Double-precision math routines
Section E7G
Active filters and op-amp circuits: active audio filters; Operational amplifiers: characteristics and applications; basic circuit design; operational amplifiers
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What is ringing in a filter?
  • An echo caused by a long time delay
  • A reduction in high frequency response
  • Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
  • Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?
  • Very low
  • Very high
  • 100 ohms
  • 1000 ohms10,000 ohms
- NEW -
What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor?
  • High-pass filter
  • Low-pass filter
  • Band-pass filter
  • Notch filter
What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?
  • 100 ohms
  • 1000 ohms10,000 ohms
  • Very low
  • Very high
What is meant by the term "“op-amp input offset voltage”?"?
  • The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
  • The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
  • The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
  • The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp RC audio filter? circuit?
  • Restrict both gain and Q
  • Restrict gain but increase Q
  • Restrict Q but increase gain
  • Increase both gain and Q
What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?
  • The maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
  • The frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
  • The gain of the amplifier at a filter'’s cutoff frequency
  • The frequency at which the amplifier'’s offset voltage is zero
What magnitude of voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
  • 0.21
  • 944700
  • 47
  • 24
How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?
  • It increases linearly with increasing frequency
  • It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
  • It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
  • It does not vary with frequency
What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 10001,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?
  • 0.23 volts
  • 2.3 volts
  • -0.23 volts
  • -2.3 volts
What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 18001,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
  • 1
  • 0.03
  • 38
  • 76
What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 33003,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
  • 28
  • 14
  • 7
  • 0.07
What is an operational amplifier?
  • A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
  • A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
  • An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
  • A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
Section E7H
Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers; stabilizing thermal drift; microphonics; high-accuracy oscillators
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 13
REMOVED
How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?
  • Through a tapped coil
  • Through a capacitive divider
  • Through link coupling
  • Through a neutralizing capacitor
REMOVED
Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
  • Pierce and Zener
  • Colpitts and Hartley
  • Armstrong and deForest
  • Negative feedback and balanced feedback
What are three common oscillator circuits? used in amateur radio equipment?
  • Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
  • Pierce, Fenner, and Beane
  • Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
  • Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
What is a microphonic?
  • An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
  • Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
  • Changes in oscillator frequency due tocaused by mechanical vibration
  • Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
was E7H14
What is a phase-locked loop? circuit?
  • An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
  • An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
  • An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
  • An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input
How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
  • Through a tapped coil
  • Through link coupling
  • Through a capacitive divider
  • Through a neutralizing capacitor
How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?
  • Through a tapped coil
  • Through link coupling
  • Through a neutralizing capacitor
  • Through a quartz crystal
was E7H15
Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?
  • Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
  • Frequency synthesis and FM demodulationComparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
  • Photovoltaic conversion, and optical coupling
  • Comparison of two digital input signals and digital pulse countingFrequency synthesis, FM demodulation
How can an oscillator'’s microphonic responses be reduced?
  • Use NP0 capacitors
  • Reduce noise on the oscillator'’s power supply
  • Increase the gainbias voltage
  • Mechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?
  • NP0 capacitors
  • Toroidal inductors
  • Wirewound resistors
  • Non-inductive resistors
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to -to-analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
  • A direct digital synthesizer
  • A hybrid synthesizer
  • A phase-locked loop synthesizer
  • A diode-switching matrixA direct conversion synthesizer
What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
  • The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
  • Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform
  • The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
  • Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?
  • Broadband noise
  • Digital conversion noise
  • Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
  • Harmonics of the local oscillatorNyquist limit noise
Which of the following must be done to ensure ensures that a crystal oscillator provides operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
  • Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
  • Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
  • Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
  • Bias the crystal at a specified current
Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?
  • Use a GPS signal reference
  • Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
  • Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
  • All these choices are correct
Subelement E8
SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS
  • Removed questions: 5
  • New questions: 7
  • Updated questions: 10
  • Total questions: 48
Section E8A
AC waveforms: sine, square, and irregular waveforms; ACFourier analysis; RMS measurements; average RF power and PEP of RF signals; Fourier analysis; peak envelope power (PEP); analog to /digital conversion: digital to analog conversion; advantages of digital communications
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?
  • A sawtooth wave
  • A square wave
  • A sine wave
  • A cosine wave
REMOVED
What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
  • A grid dip meter
  • A D'Arsonval meter
  • An absorption wave meter
  • A true-RMS calculating meter
What is the name of the process that technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all and its odd harmonics?
  • Fourier analysis
  • Vector analysis
  • Numerical analysis
  • Differential analysis
Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?
  • Successive approximation
  • Harmonic regeneration
  • Level shifting
  • Phase reversal
- NEW -
Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?
  • Power at intervals of phase
  • Amplitude at different times
  • Frequency at different times
  • Discrete impulses in time order
What is "“dither"” with respect to analog-to-digital converters?
  • An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
  • A small amount of noise added to the input signal to reduce quantization noiseallow more precise representation of a signal over time
  • An error caused by irregular quantization step size
  • A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
- NEW -
What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?
  • An inverse Fourier transform can be used
  • The signal’s RMS noise factor is also calculated
  • The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form
  • RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals
What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typicalan unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?
  • 2.5 to 1
  • 25 to 1
  • 1 to 1
  • 100 to 113 to 1
What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?
  • The frequency of the modulating signal
  • Speech characteristics
  • The degree of carrier suppression
  • Amplifier gain
Why would a Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful converters used for a software defined radio?
  • Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
  • Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
  • Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
  • All these choices are correct
How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?
  • 8
  • 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
  • 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
  • 256
What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used in conjunction with at the output of a digital-to-analog converter?
  • Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
  • Improve accuracy by removing out-of-sequence codes from the input
  • Remove harmonics spurious sampling artifacts from the output signalcaused by the discrete analog levels generated
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?
  • Total harmonic distortion
  • Peak envelope power
  • Reciprocal mixing
  • Power factor
Section E8B
Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio; frequency- and time -division multiplexing; orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What is frequency division multiplexing?
  • The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
  • Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
  • The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
  • Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
What is the modulation index of an FM signal?
  • The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
  • The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
  • The type of modulation usedThe modulating signal frequency divided by the bandwidth of the transmitted signaltransmitter
  • The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?
  • It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
  • It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
  • It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
  • It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
What is the modulation index of an FM- phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency whenif the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
  • 3
  • 0.3
  • 30006
  • 10000.6
What is the modulation index of an FM- phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz? modulating frequency?
  • 60000.3
  • 3
  • 20000.6
  • 1/36
What is the deviation ratio of an FM- phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or- or minus 5 kHz whenif the maximumhighest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
  • 606
  • 0.167
  • 0.6
  • 1.67
What is the deviation ratio of an FM- phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz whenif the maximumhighest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
  • 2.14
  • 0.214
  • 0.47
  • 47
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexingfrequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which typetypes of amateur communication?
  • High-speed digital modesDigital modes
  • Extremely low-power contacts
  • EME
  • OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing?
  • A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
  • A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
  • A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
  • A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
What is deviation ratio?
  • The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
  • The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
  • The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
  • The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
- NEW -
What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)?
  • The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
  • Dividing the transmitted signal into separate frequency bands that each carry a different data stream
  • The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
  • Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
What is digital time division multiplexing?
  • Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
  • Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
  • Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
  • Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
Section E8C
Digital signals: digital communication modes; information rate vs. bandwidth; error correction; constellation diagrams
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 4
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 15
REMOVED
How is Forward Error Correction implemented?
  • By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
  • By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
  • By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
  • By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
REMOVED
What is the bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
  • 0.1 Hz
  • 0.3 kHz
  • 0.5 kHz
  • 1.0 kHz
- NEW -
What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM?
  • A technique for digital data compression used in digital television which removes redundancy in the data by comparing bit amplitudes
  • Transmission of data by modulating the amplitude of two carriers of the same frequency but 90 degrees out of phase
  • A method of performing single sideband modulation by shifting the phase of the carrier and modulation components of the signal
  • A technique for analog modulation of television video signals using phase modulation and compression
What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?
  • The number of control characters in a message packet
  • The maximum rate at which the forward error correction code can make correctionsThe duration of each bit in a message sent over the air
  • The rate at which the waveform changes to convey information
  • The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link
Why should the phase-shifting of a PSK signal be donechanged at the zero crossing of the RF signal?
  • To minimize bandwidth
  • To simplify modulation
  • To improve carrier suppression
  • All these choices are correct
What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?
  • Zero-sum character encoding
  • Reed-Solomon character encoding
  • Use of sinusoidal data pulses
  • Use of trapezoidallinear data pulses
What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?
  • 13 Hz
  • 26 Hz
  • 52 Hz
  • 104 Hz
- NEW -
What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal?
  • 10 Hz
  • 50 Hz
  • 600 Hz
  • 2.4 kHz
What is the bandwidth of a 48004,800-Hz frequency shift, 96009,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?
  • 15.36 kHz
  • 9.6 kHz
  • 4.8 kHz
  • 5.76 kHz
How does ARQ accomplish error correction?
  • Special binary codes provide automatic correction
  • Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
  • If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
  • If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?
  • Binary Coded Decimal Code
  • Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
  • Excess 3 codeExtended ASCII
  • Gray code
How mayHow can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?
  • It is impossible
  • Increasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
  • Using a more efficient digital code
  • Using forward error correction
What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?
  • They are the same
  • Baud is twice the symbol rate
  • SymbolBaud rate is half the symbol rateonly used for packet-based modes
  • The relationship depends on the specific code usedBaud is only used for RTTY
What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?
  • IF bandwidth and Q
  • Modulation index and output power
  • Keying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?
  • How many carriers may be present at the same time
  • The possible phase and amplitude states for each symbol
  • Frequency response of the signal stream
  • The number of bits used for error correction in the protocol
- NEW -
What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?
  • Email
  • Trust server
  • Internet Protocol (IP)
  • Talk group
was E2C12
What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?
  • Forward error correction and Viterbi codes
  • Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
  • Discovery and link establishment protocols
  • Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems
Section E8D
Keying defects and overmodulation of digital signals; digital codes; spread spectrum
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 1
  • Total questions: 11
Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?
  • Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
  • The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
  • Built-in error correction codes minimize interferenceThe receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
  • If interference is detected by the receiver If the receiver detects interference, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
  • Frequency hopping
  • Direct sequence
  • Binary phase-shift keying
  • Phase compandored spread spectrum
How does the Which describes spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping? work?
  • If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
  • RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errorsIf interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
  • A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
  • The Rapidly varying the frequency of thea transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a pseudorandom sequence also used by the receiving station
What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?
  • More difficult to copy
  • The generation of RF harmonics
  • The generation of key clicks
  • More difficult to tuneLimits data speed
What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?
  • Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
  • LowInsert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
  • Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
  • HighInsert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?
  • Faster transmission rate
  • Signal-to-noise ratio is improvedThe signal can overpower interfering signals
  • A larger character set is availableForeign language characters can be sent
  • Some types of errors can be detected
What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?
  • Excessive numbers of retries
  • Ground loopsExcessive frequency deviation
  • Bit errors in the modem
  • Excessive transmit audio levels
What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?
  • Signal-to-noise ratio
  • Baud rateBaud error rate
  • Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
  • Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?
  • +10 dB+5 dB
  • +15 dB+10 dB
  • -20 dB+15 dB
  • -30 dB
What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
  • Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
  • Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
  • Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
  • Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?
  • It includes built-in error correction features
  • It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
  • It is possible to transmit both upperuppercase and lowercase textlower case text
  • It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
Subelement E9
ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES
  • Removed questions: 16
  • New questions: 12
  • Updated questions: 36
  • Total questions: 93
Section E9A
Basic Antennaantenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency; effective radiated power (ERP) and effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP)
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 2
  • Updated questions: 6
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What is the radiation resistance of an antenna?
  • The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
  • The specific impedance of the antenna
  • The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
  • The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
REMOVED
What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
  • Radiation resistance plus space impedance
  • Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
  • Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
  • Radiation resistance plus loss resistance
REMOVED
What is antenna bandwidth?
  • Antenna length divided by the number of elements
  • The frequency range over which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
  • The angle between the half-power radiation points
  • The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element ends
What is an isotropic radiator?antenna?
  • A grounded A calibrated, unidirectional antenna used to make precise antenna gain measurementsmeasure Earth conductivity
  • A An omnidirectional, horizontally polarized , precisely calibrated antenna used to make field measurements of antenna gaincompare Yagi antennas
  • A theoretical, omnidirectionalA hypothetical, lossless antenna having equal radiation intensity in all directions used as a reference for antenna gain
  • A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?
  • 1977 watts469 watts
  • 78.7 watts
  • 420 watts
  • 286 watts
was E9A13
What term describes station output, taking describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses?
  • Power factor
  • Half-power bandwidth
  • Effective radiated power
  • Apparent power
Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
  • Transmission line length
  • Antenna height
  • The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
  • The input power level
- NEW -
What does the term “ground gain” mean?
  • The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
  • The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
  • To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
  • An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?
  • 317 watts
  • 2000 watts2,000 watts
  • 126 watts
  • 300 watts
What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?
  • 159 watts
  • 252 watts
  • 632 watts
  • 63.2 watts
- NEW -
Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?
  • 5.8 GHz
  • 3.4 GHz
  • 2.4 GHz
  • 900 MHz
What is antenna efficiency?
  • Radiation resistance divided by transmission resistance
  • Radiation resistance divided by total resistance
  • Total resistance divided by radiation resistance
  • Effective radiated power divided by transmitter output
Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?
  • Installing a ground radial system
  • Isolating the coax shield from ground
  • Shortening the radiating element
  • All these choices are correct
Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?
  • The standing wave ratio
  • Distance from the transmitter
  • Soil conductivity
  • Take-off angle
How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2half-wavelength dipole whenif it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?antenna?
  • 3.85 dB
  • 6.0 dB
  • 8.15 dB
  • 2.79 dB
Section E9B
Antenna patterns and designs: Eazimuth and H plane elevation patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna modeling
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 11
In the What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?, what is the beamwidth?
  • 75 degrees
  • 50 degrees
  • 25 degrees
  • 30 degrees
In the What is the front-to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?, what is the front-to-back ratio?
  • 36 dB
  • 18 dB14 dB
  • 24 dB
  • 14 dB18 dB
In the What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?, what is the front-to-side ratio?
  • 12 dB
  • 14 dB24 dB
  • 18 dB
  • 24 dB14 dB
What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
  • 15 dB
  • 28 dB
  • 3 dB
  • 38 dB
What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?
  • Elevation
  • Azimuth
  • Radiation resistanceNear field
  • Polarization
What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
  • 45 degrees
  • 75 degrees
  • 7.5 degrees
  • 25 degrees
How doesWhat is the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from a theoretical gain and an isotropic antenna, assuming each is radiator driven by the same amount of power?
  • The total amount of radiation The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
  • The total amount of radiation The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
  • They are the same
  • The radiation The power radiated from the isotropic antennaradiator is 2.15 dB strongergreater than that from the directional antenna
What is the far field of an antenna?
  • The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
  • The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
  • The region where radiated field strengths are constant
  • The region where the shape of the antennaradiation pattern is independent of no longer varies with distance
What type of computer program technique analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?
  • Graphical analysis
  • Method of Moments
  • Mutual impedance analysis
  • Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?
  • A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
  • A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
  • A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
  • A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?
  • Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
  • The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
  • The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
  • The antenna will become mechanically unstable
Section E9C
Practical wire antennas; folded dipoles; phased arrays; effects of ground near antennas
  • Removed questions: 1
  • New questions: 1
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 14
REMOVED
Which of the following is a type of OCFD antenna?
  • A dipole fed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
  • A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
  • A folded dipole center-fed with 300-ohm transmission line
  • A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity
What is thetype of radiation pattern of is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
  • Cardioid
  • Omni-directional
  • A figure-8eight broadside to the axis of the array
  • A figure-8eight oriented along the axis of the array
What is thetype of radiation pattern of is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
  • Cardioid
  • A figure-8eight end-fire along the axis of the array
  • A figure-8eight broadside to the axis of the array
  • Omni-directional
What is thetype of radiation pattern of is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
  • Omni-directional
  • Cardioid
  • A Figure-8A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
  • A Figure-8A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array
What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?
  • TheFewer lobes become more perpendicular to form with the major lobes increasing closer to broadside to the wire
  • TheAdditional lobes align more in the directionform with major lobes increasingly aligned with the axis of the antennawire
  • The verticalThe elevation angle increases, and the front-to-rear ratio decreases
  • The The elevation angle increases, while the front-to-backrear ratio is unaffecteddecreases
- NEW -
What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?
  • To create a similar feed point impedance on multiple bands
  • To suppress off-center lobes at higher frequencies
  • To resonate the antenna across a wider range of frequencies
  • To reduce common-mode current coupling on the feed line shield
What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long-wire antenna?
  • It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
  • It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
  • It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
  • It decreases the ground loss
What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?
  • 300 ohms
  • 72 ohms
  • 50 ohms
  • 450 ohms
What is a folded dipole antenna?
  • A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
  • A center-fed dipole with the ends folded down 90 degrees at the midpoint of each sideA type of ground-plane antenna
  • A half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends
  • A dipole configured to provide forward gain
Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?
  • A multi-band dipole A wire antenna fed with coax and a balun center-fed through a selectedspecific length of open -wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed linetransmission line
  • A multi-band trap antenna
  • A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
  • A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?
  • A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing linesA dipole constructed from zip cord
  • An end-fed half-wavelength dipole antenna
  • An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
  • A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?
  • The low-angle radiationRadiation at low angles decreases
  • Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angleshigher vertical angle lobes will appear
  • Fewer vertical angle Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobebe present
  • The low-angle radiationRadiation at low angles increases
Which of the following describes an Extended Doubleextended double Zepp antenna?
  • A wideband vertical An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna constructed from precisely tapered aluminum tubing
  • A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antennaA portable antenna erected using two push support poles
  • A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna (two 5/8-wave elements in phase)
  • An end-fed folded2-wavelength dipole antenna
How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with increasing height above ground?
  • The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases
  • The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases
  • The horizontal beamwidth increases
  • The horizontal beamwidth decreases
How does the performance radiation pattern of a horizontally -polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill above a long slope compare with the same antenna mounted onabove flat ground?
  • The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
  • The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
  • The horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
  • The horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
Section E9D
Yagi antennas; parabolic reflectors; circular polarization; loading coils; top feed point impedance and loading; feed point impedance of electrically short antennas; antenna Q; RF grounding
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 7
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?
  • The front-to-back ratio increases
  • The front-to-back ratio decreases
  • The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
  • The SWR is reduced
REMOVED
Which of the following conductors would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?
  • Resistive wire, such as spark plug wire
  • Wide flat copper strap
  • Stranded wire
  • Solid wire
REMOVED
Which of the following would provide the best RF ground for your station?
  • A 50-ohm resistor connected to ground
  • An electrically short connection to a metal water pipe
  • An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
  • An electrically short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF choke
How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dishreflector antenna changeincrease when the operating frequency is doubled?
  • 2 dB
  • 3 dB
  • 4 dB
  • 6 dB
How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?
  • Stack two Yagis fed 90 degrees out of phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed 90 degrees out of phase
  • Stack two Yagis fed in phase to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed in phase
  • Arrange two Yagis on the same axis and perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
  • Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?
  • Near the center of the vertical radiator
  • As low as possible on the vertical radiator
  • At a voltage maximumAs close to the transmitter as possible
  • At a voltage nullnode
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coilcoils have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?
  • To swamp out harmonics
  • To lower the radiation angle
  • To maximize efficiencyTo minimize losses
  • To minimize the Q
- NEW -
Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element?
  • 234 divided by frequency in MHz
  • 1005 divided by frequency in MHz
  • 1/4 wavelength
  • 1/2 wavelength
What happens to the SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?
  • It is increased
  • It is decreased
  • It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
  • It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortenedan electrically short HF vertical antenna?
  • Lower Q
  • Greater structural strength
  • Higher losses
  • Improved radiation efficiency
What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?
  • SWR bandwidth increases
  • SWR bandwidth decreases
  • Gain is reduced
  • More common-mode current is present on the feed line
What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobilein an electrically short antenna?
  • To increase the SWR bandwidth by increasing net reactance
  • To lower the losses
  • To lower the Q
  • To cancel To resonate the antenna by cancelling the capacitive reactance
What happens to feed-point impedance at the base How does radiation resistance of a fixed length HF mobile base-fed whip antenna when operated change below its resonant frequency?
  • The radiation Radiation resistance increasesdecreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
  • The radiation Radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
  • The radiation Radiation resistance becomes imaginaryincreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
  • The radiation Radiation resistance does not depend on frequencyincreases and the capacitive reactance increases
- NEW -
Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director?
  • Lower SWR
  • Higher receiving directivity factor
  • Greater front-to-side
  • Higher gain
- NEW -
What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?
  • Wind torque cancellation
  • Mechanical balance
  • Control of phase shift
  • Minimize losses
Section E9E
MatchingImpedance matching: matching antennas to feed lines; phasing lines; power dividers
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 5
  • Total questions: 10
REMOVED
What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
  • The gamma matching system
  • The delta matching system
  • The omega matching system
  • The stub matching system
REMOVED
How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?
  • The driven element reactance must be capacitive
  • The driven element reactance must be inductive
  • The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
  • The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
REMOVED
Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?
  • Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
  • Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
  • Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
  • Connect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
REMOVED
What is the primary purpose of phasing lines when used with an antenna having multiple driven elements?
  • It ensures that each driven element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna pattern
  • It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
  • It allows single-band antennas to operate on other bands
  • It creates a low-angle radiation pattern
- NEW -
Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom?
  • Gamma
  • Beta or hairpin
  • Shunt-fed
  • T-match
What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line coaxial cable to an antenna by feedingconnecting the driven element both at shield to the center of the elementantenna and at the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side? of center?
  • The gamma matchGamma match
  • The delta matchDelta match
  • The epsilon matchT-match
  • The stub matchStub match
What is the name of the matching system that uses a section short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?
  • The gamma matchGamma match
  • The delta matchDelta match
  • The omega matchT-match
  • The stub matchStub match
What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match?-type antenna matching network?
  • To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
  • To cancel theunwanted inductive reactance of the matching network
  • To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
  • To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
- NEW -
What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?
  • Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
  • Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
  • Purely resistive
  • Purely reactive
Which of these feedtransmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to feed point impedance to a 50-ohm feedtransmission line?
  • 50 ohms
  • 62 ohms
  • 75 ohms
  • 450 ohms90 ohms
What parameter describes the interactions at theinteraction of a load end of a mismatched and transmission line?
  • Characteristic impedance
  • Reflection coefficient
  • Velocity factor
  • Dielectric constant
What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?
  • It dividesTo divide the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
  • It is used to To feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
  • It is used to To divide power equally between two 50-ohm loads while maintaining 50-ohm input impedance
  • To divide the frequency of the input to a counter to increase its frequency rangeIt is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
Which of the following is used to shunt- feed a grounded tower at its base?
  • Double-bazooka match
  • Hairpin matchBeta or hairpin match
  • Gamma match
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?
  • To control the antenna’s radiation pattern
  • To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
  • To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands
  • To create a low-angle radiation pattern
Section E9F
Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines; coax versus open- wire; velocity factor; electrical length; coaxial cable dielectrics; microstrip
  • Removed questions: 2
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
  • 10.6 meters
  • 5.3 meters
  • 4.3 meters
  • 3.5 meters
REMOVED
What is the approximate physical length of a foam polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
  • 10.4 meters
  • 8.3 meters
  • 6.9 meters
  • 5.2 meters
What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
  • The ratio of theits characteristic impedance of the line to the terminatingto its termination impedance
  • The ratio of its termination impedance to its characteristic impedanceThe index of shielding for coaxial cable
  • The velocity of thea wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
  • The velocity of thea wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line?
  • The terminationThe characteristic impedance
  • The The transmission line length
  • The insulating dielectric materialDielectric materials used in the line
  • The center conductor resistivity
Why is the physicalelectrical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter longer than its electricalphysical length?
  • Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
  • Skin effect is more pronounced in the coaxial cableThe characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
  • Electromagnetic waves move faster in coaxial cable than in airThe surge impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
  • Electrical signalsElectromagnetic waves move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
  • Very high impedance
  • Very low impedance
  • The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
  • The same as the output impedance of the RF generator
was E5D03
What is microstrip?
  • Special shielding material designed for microwave frequenciesLightweight transmission line made of common zip cord
  • Miniature coax used for low power applications
  • Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
  • Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?
  • 7.0 meters
  • 8.5 meters
  • 10.6 meters
  • 13.3 meters
How does ladder parallel conductor transmission line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
  • Lower loss
  • Higher SWR
  • Smaller reflection coefficient
  • Lower velocity factor
Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
  • Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage limits
  • Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
  • Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor
  • All these choices are correct
was E9F13
What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
  • Very high impedance
  • Very low impedance
  • The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
  • The same as the generator output impedance
What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
  • A capacitive reactance
  • The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
  • An inductive reactance
  • Zero
What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?
  • The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
  • An inductive reactance
  • A capacitive reactance
  • Infinite
What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?
  • The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
  • The same as the input impedance to the generator
  • Very high impedance
  • Very low impedance
Section E9G
The Smith chart
  • Removed questions: 0
  • New questions: 0
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 11
Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?
  • Impedance along transmission lines
  • Radiation resistance
  • Antenna radiation pattern
  • Radio propagation
What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
  • Voltage circles and current arcs
  • Resistance circles and reactance arcs
  • Voltage lineschords and current chords
  • Resistance lines and reactance chords
Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?
  • Beam headings and radiation patterns
  • Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
  • Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
  • Point-to-point propagation reliability as a function of frequencyTrigonometric functions
What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
  • ResistanceInductance and capacitancevoltage
  • Reactance and voltage
  • Resistance and reactance
  • Voltage and impedance
Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?
  • Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
  • Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
  • Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
  • Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
  • Prime axis
  • Reactance axis
  • Impedance axis
  • Polar axis
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
  • The reactance axis
  • The current axis
  • The voltage axis
  • The resistance axis
What is the process of normalization with regard to How is a Smith chart normalized??
  • Reassigning resistance values Reassign the reactance axis with resistance valuesregard to the reactance axis
  • Reassigning reactance values Reassign the resistance axis with reactance valuesregard to the resistance axis
  • Reassigning impedance values with regard to Reassign the prime center’s impedance value
  • Reassigning Reassign the prime center with regard to the reactance axis
What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?solving problems?
  • Standing wave ratio Constant-SWR circles
  • Antenna-Transmission line length circles
  • Coaxial-length circles
  • Radiation-pattern circles
What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?
  • Frequency
  • SWR
  • Points with constant resistance
  • Points with constant reactance
How In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?
  • In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
  • In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
  • In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
  • In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
Section E9H
Receiving Antennasantennas: radio direction finding antennas(RDF) techniques; Beverage antennas; single- and multiple-turn loopsspecialized receiving antennas; long-wire receiving antennas
  • Removed questions: 3
  • New questions: 3
  • Updated questions: 4
  • Total questions: 11
REMOVED
What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
  • The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
  • A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
  • Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
  • A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
REMOVED
Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?
  • To narrow the receiver bandwidth
  • To compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
  • To increase receiver sensitivity
  • To prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls
REMOVED
What is a Pennant antenna?
  • A four-element, high-gain vertical array invented by George Pennant
  • A small, vertically oriented receiving antenna consisting of a triangular loop terminated in approximately 900 ohms
  • A form of rhombic antenna terminated in a variable capacitor to provide frequency diversity
  • A stealth antenna built to look like a flagpole
When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?
  • Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
  • It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
  • It should be configured as a four-sided loop
  • It should be one or more wavelengthsat least one wavelength long
Which is generally true for low band (160 meter 160- and 80 -meter) receiving antennas?
  • Atmospheric noise is so high that directivity is much more important than lossesgain over a dipole is not important
  • They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
  • Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
  • All these choices are correct
What is Receiving Directivity Factorreceiving directivity factor (RDF)?
  • Forward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
  • Relative directivity compared to isotropic
  • Relative directivity compared to a dipole
  • Forward Peak antenna gain compared to average gain over the hemisphere around and above the antennaentire hemisphere
What is an advantagethe purpose of placing a grounded an electrostatic shield around a small -loop direction-finding antenna?
  • It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna
  • It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the antenna’s surroundings, improving the depth of its nulls
  • It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
  • It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line
What is the main drawback of challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
  • It has a bidirectional null pattern
  • It has no It does not have a clearly defined null
  • It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?
  • Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range
  • Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency
  • Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor
  • Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
- NEW -
What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor?
  • Increase the front-to-side ratio
  • Absorb signals from the reverse direction
  • Decrease SWR bandwidth
  • Eliminate harmonic reception
What is the function of a sense antenna?
  • It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in only one direction
  • It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
  • It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
  • It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
- NEW -
What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?
  • Cardioid
  • Bidirectional
  • Omnidirectional
  • Hyperbolic
How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
  • By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
  • By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
  • By winding adjacent By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loopin opposing directions
  • All these choices are correctBy increasing the number of turns and/or the area
What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction-finding antennas? finding?
  • A very sharp peak
  • A very sharp single nullA single null
  • Broadband response
  • High radiation angle
Subelement E0
SAFETY -SAFETY
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
Section E0A
Safety: RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials; grounding
  • Removed questions: 4
  • New questions: 5
  • Updated questions: 2
  • Total questions: 12
REMOVED
How may dangerous levels of carbon monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
  • By the odor
  • Only with a carbon monoxide detector
  • Any ordinary smoke detector can be used
  • By the yellowish appearance of the gas
REMOVED
Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?
  • Mica
  • Zinc oxide
  • Beryllium Oxide
  • Uranium Hexafluoride
REMOVED
What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?
  • Polychlorinated biphenyls
  • Polyethylene
  • Polytetrafluoroethylene
  • Polymorphic silicon
REMOVED
Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
  • Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
  • Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
  • Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
  • Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?
  • Prevent static build up on power linesReduce received noise
  • Lightning charge dissipationprotection
  • Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
  • Protect breaker panel from power surgesReduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor'’s home, what must you do?
  • Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposuremaximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
  • Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposuremaximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
  • Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emissionmaximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
  • Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emissionmaximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?
  • 300 kHz to- 3 MHz
  • 3 to 30 MHz3 - 30 MHz
  • 30 to 300 MHz30 - 300 MHz
  • 300 to 3000 MHz300 - 3000 MHz
When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?
  • Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceededOnly the most powerful transmitter
  • Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percentOnly commercial transmitters
  • Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded.
  • Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
What is one of the potential hazards of hazard is created by operating in the amateur radio at microwave frequencies?bands?
  • Microwaves are ionizing radiation
  • The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
  • Microwaves are in the frequency range where wave velocity is higheroften travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
  • The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz??
  • The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
  • Ground reflections and scattering makecause the field strength to vary with location
  • E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
  • All these choices are correct
- NEW -
What is meant by “100% tie-off” regarding tower safety?
  • All loose ropes and guys secured to a fixed structure
  • At least one lanyard attached to the tower at all times
  • All tools secured to the climber’s harness
  • All circuit breakers feeding power to the tower must be tied closed with tape, cable, or ties
What does SAR measure?
  • Signal attenuation ratioSynthetic Aperture Ratio of the human body
  • Signal amplification ratingAmplification Rating
  • The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
  • The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
- NEW -
Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?
  • Transceivers with less than 7 watts of RF output
  • Antennas that radiate only in the near field
  • Hand-held transceivers sold before May 3, 2021
  • Dish antennas less than one meter in diameter
- NEW -
When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?
  • An evaluation must always be performed
  • When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
  • When the station’s operating mode is CW
  • When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts
- NEW -
To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?
  • Antenna mast
  • Guy brackets
  • Tower rungs
  • Tower legs
- NEW -
Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground?
  • Above the climber’s head level
  • To the belt of the fall-arrest harness
  • Even with the climber's waist
  • To the next lowest set of guys
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