HamStudy.org: Questions that need explanations in CA_B

2007 Basic pool

960 / 960 questions need explanations

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1-01-01

Authority to make "Radiocommunication Regulations" is derived from:

A.
the Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
B.
the General Radio Regulations (0% chose this)
C.
the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
D.
the ITU Radio Regulations (0% chose this)

1-01-02

Authority to make "Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service" is derived from:

A.
the General Radio Regulations (0% chose this)
B.
the Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
C.
the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
D.
the ITU Radio Regulations (0% chose this)

1-01-03

The Department that is responsible for the administration of the Radiocommunication Act is:

A.
Transport Canada (0% chose this)
B.
Industry Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Communications Canada (0% chose this)
D.
National Defense (0% chose this)

1-01-04

The "amateur radio service" is defined in:

A.
the Radiocommunication Act (0% chose this)
B.
the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
C.
the General Radio Regulations (0% chose this)
D.
the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)

1-02-01

What must you do to notify your mailing address changes?

A.
Telephone your local club, and give them your new address (0% chose this)
B.
Contact an accredited examiner and provide details of your address change (0% chose this)
C.
Contact Industry Canada and provide details of your address change (0% chose this)
D.
Write amateur organizations advising them of your new address, enclosing your licence (0% chose this)

1-02-02

An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is valid for:

A.
five years (0% chose this)
B.
three years (0% chose this)
C.
one year (0% chose this)
D.
for life (0% chose this)

1-02-03

Whenever a change of address is made:

A.
Industry Canada must be notified within 14 days of operation at the new address (0% chose this)
B.
the station shall not be operated until a change of address card is forwarded to Industry Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Industry Canada must be advised of any change in postal address within the same province, (0% chose this)
D.
there is no need to notify Industry Canada (0% chose this)

1-02-04

The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate:

A.
must be put on file (0% chose this)
B.
must be kept in a safe place (0% chose this)
C.
must be retained at the station (0% chose this)
D.
must be kept on the person to whom it is issued (0% chose this)

1-02-05

The holder of a radio authorization shall, at the request of a duly appointed radio inspector, show the radio authorization, or a copy thereof, to the inspector, within _______ hours after the request:

A.
48 (0% chose this)
B.
12 (0% chose this)
C.
24 (0% chose this)
D.
72 (0% chose this)

1-02-06

The fee for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is:

A.
free (0% chose this)
B.
$32 (0% chose this)
C.
$10 (0% chose this)
D.
$24 (0% chose this)

1-02-07

The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate should be:

A.
retained in a safety deposit box (0% chose this)
B.
retained on the radio amateur's person (0% chose this)
C.
retained in the radio amateur's vehicle (0% chose this)
D.
retained at the address notified to Industry Canada (0% chose this)

1-03-01

Out of amateur band transmissions:

A.
must be identified with your call sign (0% chose this)
B.
are permitted (0% chose this)
C.
are prohibited — penalties could be assessed to the control operator (0% chose this)
D.
are permitted for short tests only (0% chose this)

1-03-02

If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word "Mayday," what is this called?

A.
A traditional greeting in May (0% chose this)
B.
An emergency test transmission (0% chose this)
C.
Nothing special: "Mayday" has no meaning in an emergency (0% chose this)
D.
False or deceptive signals (0% chose this)

1-03-03

A person found guilty of transmitting a false or fraudulent distress signal, or interfering with, or obstructing any radio communication, without lawful cause, may be liable, on summary conviction, to a penalty of:

A.
a fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison term of one year, or both (0% chose this)
B.
a fine of $10 000 (0% chose this)
C.
a prison term of two years (0% chose this)
D.
a fine of $1 000 (0% chose this)

1-03-04

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.
No person shall decode an encrypted subscription programming signal without permission of the lawful distributor (0% chose this)
B.
No person shall, without lawful excuse, interfere with or obstruct any radiocommunication (0% chose this)
C.
A person may decode an encrypted subscription programming signal, and retransmit it to the public (0% chose this)
D.
No person shall send, transmit, or cause to be transmitted, any false or fraudulent distress signal (0% chose this)

1-03-05

Which of the following is not correct? The Minister may suspend a radio authorization:

A.
where the holder has contravened the Act, the Regulations, or the terms and conditions of the authorization (0% chose this)
B.
where the radio authorization was obtained through misrepresentation (0% chose this)
C.
with no notice, or opportunity to make representation thereto (0% chose this)
D.
where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due (0% chose this)

1-03-06

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.
Where entry is refused, and is necessary to perform his duties under the Act, a radio inspector may obtain a warrant (0% chose this)
B.
A radio inspector may enter a dwelling without the consent of the occupant and without a warrant (0% chose this)
C.
In executing a warrant, a radio inspector shall not use force, unless accompanied by a peace officer, and force is authorized (0% chose this)
D.
The person in charge of a place entered by a radio inspector shall give the inspector information that the inspector requests (0% chose this)

1-03-07

The Minister may suspend or revoke a radio authorization without notice:

A.
where the radio authorization was obtained through misrepresentation (0% chose this)
B.
where the holder has contravened the Act or Regulations (0% chose this)
C.
where the holder has contravened the terms and conditions of the authorization (0% chose this)
D.
where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due (0% chose this)

1-04-01

What age must you be to hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification?

A.
70 years or younger (0% chose this)
B.
18 years or older (0% chose this)
C.
There are no age limits (0% chose this)
D.
14 years or older (0% chose this)

1-04-02

Which examinations must be passed before an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is issued?

A.
Basic (0% chose this)
B.
12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
C.
5 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
D.
Advanced (0% chose this)

1-04-03

The holder of an Amateur Digital Radio Operator's Certificate:

A.
has equivalency for the Basic qualification (0% chose this)
B.
has equivalency for the Basic and Advanced qualifications (0% chose this)
C.
has equivalency for the Basic and 12 w.p.m.qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
has equivalency for the Basic, Advanced and 12 w.p.m. qualifications (0% chose this)

1-04-04

After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic qualifications is issued, the holder may be examined for additional qualifications in the following order:

A.
12 w.p.m. after passing the Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
5 w.p.m. after passing the 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
C.
Advanced after the 5 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
D.
any order (0% chose this)

1-04-05

Two Morse code qualifications are available for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. They are:

A.
5 and 10 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
B.
7 and 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
C.
7 and 15 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
D.
5 and 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)

1-05-04

A radio amateur with Basic and 12 w.p.m. Morse qualifications may install an amateur station for another person:

A.
only if the other person is the holder of a valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
B.
only if the final power input does not exceed 100 watts (0% chose this)
C.
only if the station is for use on one of the VHF bands (0% chose this)
D.
only if the DC power input to the final stage does not exceed 200 watts (0% chose this)

1-06-01

An amateur station with a maximum input to the final stage of 2 watts:

A.
must be licensed at all locations (0% chose this)
B.
must be licensed in built-up areas only (0% chose this)
C.
must be licensed in isolated areas only (0% chose this)
D.
is exempt from licensing (0% chose this)

1-06-02

An amateur station may be used to communicate with:

A.
any stations which are identified for special contests (0% chose this)
B.
armed forces stations during special contests and training exercises (0% chose this)
C.
similarly licensed stations (0% chose this)
D.
any station transmitting in the amateur bands (0% chose this)

1-06-03

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.
A radio amateur may not transmit superfluous signals (0% chose this)
B.
A radio amateur may not transmit profane or obscene language or messages (0% chose this)
C.
A radio amateur may not operate, or permit to be operated, a radio apparatus which he knows is not performing to the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
D.
A radio amateur may use his linear amplifier to amplify the output of a licence-exempt transmitter (0% chose this)

1-06-04

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.
No person shall possess or operate any device, for the purpose of amplifying the output power of a licence-exempt radio apparatus (0% chose this)
B.
A person may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where the apparatus is maintained to the Radiocommunication Regulations tolerances (0% chose this)
C.
A person may operate radio apparatus on the amateur radio bands only to transmit superfluous signals (0% chose this)
D.
A person may operate an amateur radio station when the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)

1-06-05

Which of the following statements is not correct? A person may operate radio apparatus, licensed in the amateur service:

A.
on aeronautical, marine or land mobile frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
only where the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service (0% chose this)
C.
only where the apparatus is maintained within the performance standards set by Industry Canada regulations and policies (0% chose this)
D.
but not for the amplification of the output power of licence-exempt radio apparatus (0% chose this)

1-07-01

Which of the following cannot be discussed on an amateur club net?

A.
Recreation planning (0% chose this)
B.
Code practice planning (0% chose this)
C.
Emergency planning (0% chose this)
D.
Business planning (0% chose this)

1-07-02

When is a radio amateur allowed to broadcast information to the general public?

A.
Never (0% chose this)
B.
Only when the operator is being paid (0% chose this)
C.
Only when broadcasts last less than 1 hour (0% chose this)
D.
Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 minutes (0% chose this)

1-07-03

When may false or deceptive amateur signals or communications be transmitted?

A.
Never (0% chose this)
B.
When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise (0% chose this)
C.
When playing a harmless "practical joke" (0% chose this)
D.
When you need to hide the meaning of a message for secrecy (0% chose this)

1-07-04

Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur service?

A.
Broadcasts intended for the general public (0% chose this)
B.
Telecommands to model craft (0% chose this)
C.
Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station (0% chose this)
D.
Morse code practice (0% chose this)

1-07-05

When may you send indecent or profane words from your amateur station?

A.
Never (0% chose this)
B.
Only when they do not cause interference to other communications (0% chose this)
C.
Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater (0% chose this)
D.
Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air (0% chose this)

1-07-06

When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a message in a secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the communication?

A.
During a declared communications emergency (0% chose this)
B.
During contests (0% chose this)
C.
Never (0% chose this)
D.
When transmitting above 450 MHz (0% chose this)

1-07-07

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

A.
There are no restrictions (0% chose this)
B.
They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to government monitoring stations (0% chose this)
C.
Only "10 codes" are permitted (0% chose this)
D.
They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message (0% chose this)

1-07-08

What should you do to keep you station from retransmitting music or signals from a non- amateur station?

A.
Turn up the volume of your transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength (0% chose this)
C.
Adjust your transceiver noise blanker (0% chose this)
D.
Turn down the volume of background audio (0% chose this)

1-07-09

The transmission of a secret code by the operator of an amateur station:

A.
is permitted for contests (0% chose this)
B.
must be approved by Industr Canada (0% chose this)
C.
is not permitted (0% chose this)
D.
is permitted for third-part traffic (0% chose this)

1-07-10

A radio amateur may be engaged in communication which include the transmission of:

A.
programming that originates from a broadcasting undertakin (0% chose this)
B.
Q signals (0% chose this)
C.
radiocommunication in support of industrial, business, or professional activities (0% chose this)
D.
commercially recorded material (0% chose this)

1-07-11

An amateur station may transmit:

A.
profane or obscene words or language (0% chose this)
B.
music (0% chose this)
C.
secret codes or ciphers (0% chose this)
D.
signals which are not superfluous (0% chose this)

1-08-01

Where may the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operate an amateur radio station in Canada?

A.
anywhere in Canada (0% chose this)
B.
anywhere in Canada during times of emergency (0% chose this)
C.
only at the address shown o Industry Canada records (0% chose this)
D.
anywhere in your call sign prefix area (0% chose this)

1-08-02

Which type of station may transmit oneway communications?

A.
Beacon station (0% chose this)
B.
Repeater station (0% chose this)
C.
HF station (0% chose this)
D.
VHF station (0% chose this)

1-08-03

Amateur radio operators may install or operate radio apparatus:

A.
at any location in Canada (0% chose this)
B.
only at the address which is on record at Industry Canada (0% chose this)
C.
at the address which is on record at Industry Canada and at one other location (0% chose this)
D.
at the address which is on record at Industry Canada and in two mobiles (0% chose this)

1-08-04

In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for receiving and automatically retransmitting radiotelephone communications within the same frequency band, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of these qualifications:

A.
Basic and 12 w.p.m. Morse qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
Basic and Advanced qualifications (0% chose this)
C.
Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
D.
Basic and 5 w.p.m. Morse qualifications (0% chose this)

1-08-05

In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for an amateur radio club station, the radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of the following qualifications:

A.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)
B.
Basic, Advanced and 5 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
C.
Basic (0% chose this)
D.
Basic, Advanced, and 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)

1-08-06

In order to install or operate a transmitter or RF amplifier that is not commercially manufactured for use in the amateur service, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Operator's Certificate, with a minimum of which qualifications?

A.
Basic, Advanced and 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
B.
Basic, and 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
C.
Basic, Advanced and 5 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
D.
Basic and Advanced (0% chose this)

1-09-01

Who is responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station?

A.
Only the station owner who is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate (0% chose this)
B.
Both the control operator and the station licensee (0% chose this)
C.
The person who owns the station equipment (0% chose this)
D.
Only the control operator (0% chose this)

1-09-02

If you transmit from another amateur's station, who is responsible for its proper operation?

A.
You, the control operator (0% chose this)
B.
Both of you (0% chose this)
C.
The station owner, unless the station records show that you were the control operator at the time (0% chose this)
D.
The station owner (0% chose this)

1-09-03

What is your responsibility as a station owner?

A.
You must allow another amateur to operate your station upon request (0% chose this)
B.
You must be present whenever the station is operated (0% chose this)
C.
You must notify Industry Canada if another amateur acts as the control operator (0% chose this)
D.
You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in accordance with the regulations (0% chose this)

1-09-04

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station?

A.
Any person over 21 years of age with a Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
B.
Any qualified amateur chosen by the station owner (0% chose this)
C.
Any person over 21 years of age with Basic and 12 w.p.m. qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
Any person over 21 years of age (0% chose this)

1-09-05

When must an amateur station have a control operator?

A.
A control operator is not needed (0% chose this)
B.
Whenever the station receiver is operated (0% chose this)
C.
Whenever the station is transmitting (0% chose this)
D.
Only when training another amateur (0% chose this)

1-09-06

When a station is transmitting, where must its control operator be?

A.
Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
At the station's entrance, to control entry to the room (0% chose this)
C.
Anywhere within 50 km of the station location (0% chose this)
D.
At the station's control point (0% chose this)

1-09-07

Why can't family members without qualifications transmit using your amateur station if they are alone with your equipment?

A.
They must not use your equipment without your permission (0% chose this)
B.
They must first know how to use the right abbreviations and Q signals (0% chose this)
C.
They must first know the right frequencies and emissions for transmitting (0% chose this)
D.
They must hold suitable amateur radio qualifications before they are allowed to be control operators (0% chose this)

1-09-08

The owner of an amateur station may:

A.
permit anyone to take part in communications only if prior written permission is received from Industry Canada (0% chose this)
B.
permit anyone to use the station without restrictions (0% chose this)
C.
permit any person to operate the station under the supervision and in the presence of the holder of the amateur operator certificate (0% chose this)
D.
permit anyone to use the station and take part in communications (0% chose this)

1-09-09

Which of the following statements is Correct?

A.
A person, holding only Basic Qualification, may operate another station on 14.2 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
radio amateur may permit any person to operate the station without supervision (0% chose this)
C.
Any person may operate an amateur station under supervision, and in the presence of, a person holding appropriate qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
Any person may operate a station in the amateur radio service (0% chose this)

1-10-01

What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?

A.
Harmful interference (0% chose this)
B.
Interrupted CW (0% chose this)
C.
Transponder signals (0% chose this)
D.
Unidentified transmissions (0% chose this)

1-10-02

When may you deliberately interfere with another station's communications?

A.
Never (0% chose this)
B.
Only if the station is operating illegally (0% chose this)
C.
Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are using (0% chose this)
D.
You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it can't be helped during crowded band conditions (0% chose this)

1-10-03

If the regulations say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean?

A.
Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause interference to primary users (0% chose this)
B.
Nothing special: all users of a frequency band have equal rights to operate (0% chose this)
C.
Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during emergencies (0% chose this)
D.
Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any interference caused by primary users (0% chose this)

1-10-04

What rule applies if two amateur stations want to use the same frequency?

A.
Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency (0% chose this)
B.
The station operator with a lesser class of licence must yield the frequency to a higher-class licensee (0% chose this)
C.
The station operator with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher power output (0% chose this)
D.
Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations in ITU Region 2 (0% chose this)

1-10-05

What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service?

A.
Intentional interference (0% chose this)
B.
Adjacent interference (0% chose this)
C.
Disruptive interference (0% chose this)
D.
Harmful interference (0% chose this)

1-10-06

Where interference to the reception of radiocommunications is caused by the operation of an amateur station:

A.
the amateur station operator is not obligated to take any action (0% chose this)
B.
the amateur station operator may continue to operate without restrictions (0% chose this)
C.
the Minister may require that the necessary steps for the prevention of the interference be taken by the radio amateur (0% chose this)
D.
the amateur station operator may continue to operate and the necessary steps can be taken when the amateur operator can afford it (0% chose this)

1-10-07

Radio amateur operation must not cause interference to other radio services operating in which of the following bands?

A.
7.0 to 7.1 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
144.0 to 148.0 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
430.0 to 450.0 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
14.0 to 14.2 MHz (0% chose this)

1-10-08

Radio amateur operations are not protected from interference caused by another service operating in which of the following frequency bands?

A.
144 to 148 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
220 to 225 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
50 to 54 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
902 to 928 MHz (0% chose this)

1-10-09

Which of the following is not correct? The operator of an amateur station:

A.
shall not cause harmful interference to a station in another service which has primary use of that band (0% chose this)
B.
may conduct technical experiments using the station apparatus (0% chose this)
C.
may make trials or tests, even though there is a possibility of interfering with other stations (0% chose this)
D.
may make trials or tests, except under circumstances that preclude the possibility of interference with other stations (0% chose this)

1-11-01

Amateur radio stations may communicate:

A.
with anyone who uses international Morse code (0% chose this)
B.
with non amateur stations (0% chose this)
C.
with any station involved in a real or simulated emergency (0% chose this)
D.
only with other amateur stations (0% chose this)

1-11-02

In the amateur radio service, business communications:

A.
Are permitted on some bands (0% chose this)
B.
are not permitted under any circumstance (0% chose this)
C.
are only permitted if they are for the safety of life or immediate protection of property (0% chose this)
D.
are not prohibited by regulation (0% chose this)

1-11-03

If you hear an unanswered distress signal on a amateur band where you do not have privileges to communicate:

A.
you may offer assistance using international Morse code only (0% chose this)
B.
you may offer assistance after contacting Industry Canada for permission to do so (0% chose this)
C.
you should offer assistance (0% chose this)
D.
you may not offer assistance (0% chose this)

1-11-04

In the amateur radio service, it is permissible to broadcast:

A.
music (0% chose this)
B.
commercially recorded material (0% chose this)
C.
programming that originates from a broadcast undertaking (0% chose this)
D.
radio communications required for the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property (0% chose this)

1-11-05

An amateur radio station in distress may:

A.
only use radiocommunication bands for which the operator is qualified to use (0% chose this)
B.
use any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this)
C.
any means of radiocommunication (0% chose this)
D.
only Morse code communications on internationally recognized emergency channels (0% chose this)

1-11-06

During a disaster, when may an amateur station make transmissions necessary to meet essential communication needs and assist relief operations?

A.
Never: only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster (0% chose this)
B.
When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted (0% chose this)
C.
When normal communication systems are working but are not convenient (0% chose this)
D.
Only when the local emergency net is activated (0% chose this)

1-11-07

During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by a station in distress?

A.
1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP during the night (0% chose this)
B.
1500 watts PEP (0% chose this)
C.
There are no limitations during an emergency (0% chose this)
D.
200 watts PEP (0% chose this)

1-11-08

During a disaster:

A.
use only frequencies in the 80 metre band (0% chose this)
B.
use only frequencies in the 40 metre band (0% chose this)
C.
use any United Nations approved frequency (0% chose this)
D.
most communications are handled by nets using predetermined frequencies in amateur bands. Operators not directly involved with disaster communications are requested to avoid making unnecessary transmissions on or near frequencies being used for disaster communications (0% chose this)

1-11-09

Messages from recognized public service agencies may be handled by amateur radio stations:

A.
using Morse code only (0% chose this)
B.
when Industry Canada has issued a special authorization (0% chose this)
C.
only on the 7 and 14 MHz band (0% chose this)
D.
during peace time and civil emergencies and exercises (0% chose this)

1-11-10

It is permissible to interfere with the working of another station if:

A.
the other station is not operating according to the Radiocommunication Regulations (0% chose this)
B.
you both wish to contact the same station (0% chose this)
C.
the other station is interfering with your transmission (0% chose this)
D.
your station is directly involved with a distress situation (0% chose this)

1-12-01

What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur station?

A.
Donation of amateur equipment (0% chose this)
B.
Donation of equipment repairs (0% chose this)
C.
No payment of any kind is allowed (0% chose this)
D.
Any amount agreed upon in advance (0% chose this)

1-12-02

Radiocommunications transmitted by stations other than a broadcasting station may be divulged or used:

A.
if transmitted by any station using the international Morse code (0% chose this)
B.
if it is transmitted by an amateur station (0% chose this)
C.
if transmitted in English or French (0% chose this)
D.
during peacetime civil emergencies (0% chose this)

1-12-03

The operator of an amateur station:

A.
shall charge no less than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
B.
shall charge no more than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
C.
may accept a gift or gratuity in lieu of remuneration for any message that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)
D.
shall not demand or accept remuneration in any form, in respect of a radiocommunication that the person transmits or receives (0% chose this)

1-12-04

Which of the following is not an exception from the penalties under the Act, for divulging, intercepting or using information obtained through radiocommunication, other than broadcasting?

A.
Where it is to provide information for a journalist (0% chose this)
B.
Where it is for the purpose of preserving or protecting property, or for the prevention of harm to a person (0% chose this)
C.
Where it is for the purpose of giving evidence in a criminal or civil proceeding in which persons are required to give evidence (0% chose this)
D.
Where it is on behalf of Canada, for the purpose of international or national defence or security (0% chose this)

1-13-01

Which of the following call signs is a valid Canadian amateur radio callsign?

A.
SM2CAN (0% chose this)
B.
VA3XYZ (0% chose this)
C.
BY7HY (0% chose this)
D.
KA9OLS (0% chose this)

1-13-02

How often must an amateur station be identified?

A.
At least every thirty minutes, and at the beginning and at the end of a contact (0% chose this)
B.
At the beginning of a contact and at least every thirty minutes after that (0% chose this)
C.
At least once during each transmission (0% chose this)
D.
At the beginning and end of each transmission (0% chose this)

1-13-03

What do you transmit to identify your amateur station?

A.
Your "handle" (0% chose this)
B.
Your first name and your location (0% chose this)
C.
Your full name (0% chose this)
D.
Your call sign (0% chose this)

1-13-04

What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations begin communications?

A.
No identification is required (0% chose this)
B.
Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)
C.
Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)
D.
One of the stations must give both stations' call signs (0% chose this)

1-13-05

What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations end communications?

A.
Each station must transmit its own call sign (0% chose this)
B.
No identification is required (0% chose this)
C.
One of the stations must transmit both stations' call signs (0% chose this)
D.
Both stations must transmit both call signs (0% chose this)

1-13-06

What is the longest period of time an amateur station can operate, without transmitting its call sign?

A.
20 minutes (0% chose this)
B.
15 minutes (0% chose this)
C.
30 minutes (0% chose this)
D.
10 minutes (0% chose this)

1-13-07

When may an amateur transmit unidentified communications?

A.
Only for brief tests not meant as messages (0% chose this)
B.
Only if it does not interfere with others (0% chose this)
C.
Only for two-way or third- party communications (0% chose this)
D.
Never, except to control a model craft (0% chose this)

1-13-08

What language may you use when identifying your station?

A.
English or French (0% chose this)
B.
Any language being used for a contact (0% chose this)
C.
Any language being used for a contact, providing Canada has a third-party communications agreement with that country (0% chose this)
D.
Any language of a country which is a member of the International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)

1-13-09

The call sign of an amateur station must be transmitted:

A.
at intervals not greater than three minutes when using voice communications (0% chose this)
B.
at intervals not greater than ten minutes when using Morse code (0% chose this)
C.
when requested to do so by the station being called (0% chose this)
D.
at the beginning and at the end of each exchange of communications and at intervals not greater than 30 minutes (0% chose this)

1-13-10

The call sign of an amateur station must be sent:

A.
every minute (0% chose this)
B.
every 15 minutes (0% chose this)
C.
at the beginning and end of each exchange of communications, and at least every 30 minutes, while in communications (0% chose this)
D.
once after initial contact (0% chose this)

1-13-11

The call sign of a Canadian amateur radio station would normally start with the letters:

A.
VA, VE, VO or VY (0% chose this)
B.
GA, GE, MO or VQ (0% chose this)
C.
A, K, N or W (0% chose this)
D.
EA, EI, RO or UY (0% chose this)

1-14-01

If a non-amateur friend is using your station to talk to someone in Canada, and a foreign station breaks in to talk to your friend, what should you do?

A.
Since you can talk to foreign amateurs, your friend may keep talking as long as you are the control operator (0% chose this)
B.
Have your friend wait until you find out if Canada has a third-party agreement with the foreign station's government (0% chose this)
C.
Report the incident to the foreign amateur's government (0% chose this)
D.
Stop all discussions and quickly sign off (0% chose this)

1-14-02

If you let an unqualified third party use your amateur station, what must you do at your station's control point?

A.
You must key the transmitter and make the station identification (0% chose this)
B.
You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
You must continuously monitor and supervise the third party's participation (0% chose this)
D.
You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made in countries which have no third party communications (0% chose this)

1-14-03

Radio amateurs may use their stations to transmit international communications on behalf of a third party only if:

A.
the amateur station has received written authorization from Industry Canada to pass third party traffic (0% chose this)
B.
the communication is transmitted by secret code (0% chose this)
C.
such communications have been authorized by the countries concerned (0% chose this)
D.
prior remuneration has been received (0% chose this)

1-14-04

A person operating a Canadian amateur station is forbidden to communicate with amateur stations of another country:

A.
when that country has notified the International Telecommunication Union that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)
B.
without written permission from Industry Canada (0% chose this)
C.
until he has properly identified his station (0% chose this)
D.
unless he is passing third- party traffic (0% chose this)

1-14-05

International communications on behalf of third parties may be transmitted by an amateur station only if:

A.
English or French is used to identify the station at the end of each transmission (0% chose this)
B.
the countries concerned have authorized such communications (0% chose this)
C.
the countries for which the traffic is intended have registered their consent to such communications with the ITU (0% chose this)
D.
radiotelegraphy is used (0% chose this)

1-14-06

Amateur third party communications is:

A.
the transmission of commercial or secret messages (0% chose this)
B.
a simultaneous communication between three operators (0% chose this)
C.
none of these answers (0% chose this)
D.
the transmission of non- commercial or personal messages to or on behalf of a third party (0% chose this)

1-14-07

Third-party traffic is:

A.
any message passed by an amateur station (0% chose this)
B.
coded communications of any type (0% chose this)
C.
a message sent to a non- amateur via an amateur station (0% chose this)
D.
any communication between two amateur operators (0% chose this)

1-14-08

One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message is originated by, or addressed to, a nonamateur:

A.
messages that are handled within a local network (0% chose this)
B.
messages addressed to points within Canada (0% chose this)
C.
messages originated from Canadian Forces Affiliated Radio Service (CFARS) (0% chose this)
D.
all messages received from Canadian stations (0% chose this)

1-14-09

One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message may be originated by, or addressed to, a non-amateur:

A.
messages that originate from the United States Military Affiliated Radio System (MARS) (0% chose this)
B.
all messages originated by Canadian amateur stations (0% chose this)
C.
messages addressed to points within Canada from the United States (0% chose this)
D.
messages that are handled within local networks during a simulated emergency exercise (0% chose this)

1-14-10

Which of the following is not correct? While in Canada, the operator of a station licensed by the Government of the United States, shall identify the station using three of these identifiers:

A.
by adding to the call sign the Canadian call sign prefix for the geographic location of the station (0% chose this)
B.
by radiotelephone, adding to the call sign the word "mobile" or "portable" or by radiotelegraph adding the oblique character "/" (0% chose this)
C.
US radio amateurs must obtain a Canadian amateur station licence before operating in Canada (0% chose this)
D.
by transmitting the call sign assigned by the FCC (0% chose this)

1-14-11

Which of the following statements is not correct? A Canadian radio amateur may:

A.
pass third-party traffic with all duly licensed amateur stations in any country which is a member of the ITU (0% chose this)
B.
pass messages originating from or destined to the United States Military Affiliated Radio System (MARS) (0% chose this)
C.
pass messages originating from or destined to the Canadian Forces Affiliated Radio Service (CFARS) (0% chose this)
D.
communicate with a similar station of a country which has not notified ITU that it objects to such communications (0% chose this)

1-15-01

If you let another amateur with additional qualifications than yours control your station, what operating privileges are allowed?

A.
Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications (0% chose this)
C.
All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)

1-15-02

If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur who has additional qualifications to yours, what operating privileges are you allowed?

A.
Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
All the emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
C.
All the frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications (0% chose this)

1-15-03

In addition to passing the Basic written examination, what must you do before you are allowed to use amateur frequencies below 30 MHz?

A.
You must notify Industry Canada that you intend to operate on the HF bands (0% chose this)
B.
You must pass a Morse code test (0% chose this)
C.
You must attend a class to learn about HF communications (0% chose this)
D.
You must pass a Morse code or Advanced test or attain a mark of 80% on the Basic exam (0% chose this)

1-15-04

The licensee of an amateur station may operate radio controlled models:

A.
if the control transmitter does not exceed 15 kHz of occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)
B.
on all frequencies above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
if the frequency used is below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
if only pulse modulation is used (0% chose this)

1-15-05

In Canada, the 75/80 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:

A.
3.0 to 3.5 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
4.0 to 4.5 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
4.5 to 5.0 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
3.5 to 4.0 MHz (0% chose this)

1-15-06

In Canada, the 160 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:

A.
1.8 to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
1.5 to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
2.0 to 2.25 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
2.25 to 2.5 MHz (0% chose this)

1-15-07

In Canada, the 40 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:

A.
6.5 to 6.8 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
6.0 to 6.3 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
7.7 to 8.0 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
7.0 to 7.3 MHz (0% chose this)

1-15-08

In Canada, the 20 meter amateur band corresponds in frequency to:

A.
14.000 to 14.350 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
13.500 to 14.000 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
15.000 to 15.750 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
16.350 to 16.830 MHz (0% chose this)

1-15-09

In Canada, the 15 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:

A.
18.068 to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
14.000 to 14.350 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
28.000 to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
21.000 to 21.450 MHz (0% chose this)

1-15-10

In Canada, the 10 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to:

A.
28.000 to 29.700 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
24.890 to 24.990 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
21.000 to 21.450 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
50.000 to 54.000 MHz (0% chose this)

1-15-11

In Canada, radio amateurs may use which of the following for radio control of models:

A.
50 to 54 MHz only (0% chose this)
B.
all amateur frequency bands (0% chose this)
C.
all amateur frequency bands above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
50 to 54, 144 to 148, and 220 to 225 MHz only (0% chose this)

1-16-01

What is the maximum authorized bandwidth within the frequency range of 50 to 148 MHz?

A.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband phone emission (0% chose this)
C.
The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission (0% chose this)
D.
30 kHz (0% chose this)

1-16-02

The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 28 to 29.7 MHz is:

A.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
30 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
15 kHz (0% chose this)

1-16-03

Except for one band, the maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed below 28 MHz is:

A.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
15 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
30 kHz (0% chose this)

1-16-04

The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 144 to 148 MHz is:

A.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
30 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
15 kHz (0% chose this)

1-16-05

The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 50 to 54 MHz is:

A.
20 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
30 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
15 kHz (0% chose this)

1-16-06

Only one band of amateur frequencies has a maximum allowed bandwidth of less than 6 kHz. That band is:

A.
18.068 to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
10.1 to 10.15 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
24.89 to 24.99 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
1.8 to 2.0 MHz (0% chose this)

1-16-07

Single sideband is not permitted in the band:

A.
18.068 to 18.168 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
10.1 to 10.15 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
24.89 to 24.99 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
7.0 to 7.3 MHz (0% chose this)

1-16-08

The bandwidth of an amateur station shall be determined by measuring the frequency band occupied by that signal at a level of _______ dB below the maximum amplitude of that signal:

A.
3 (0% chose this)
B.
6 (0% chose this)
C.
36 (0% chose this)
D.
26 (0% chose this)

1-16-09

Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:

A.
AMTOR on 14.08 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
packet on 10.145 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
fast-scan television (ATV) on 145 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
fast-scan television (ATV) on 440 MHz (0% chose this)

1-16-10

Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:

A.
fast-scan television (ATV) on 14.23 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
slow-scan television (SSTV) on 14.23 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
single-sideband (SSB) on 3.76 MHz (0% chose this)

1-16-11

Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies:

A.
single-sideband (SSB) on 10.12 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Morse radiotelegraphy (CW) on 10.11 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
packet on 10.148 MHz (0% chose this)

1-17-01

What amount of transmitter power must radio amateurs use at all times?

A.
The minimum legal power necessary to communicate (0% chose this)
B.
25 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
C.
250 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
D.
2000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)

1-17-02

What is the most FM transmitter power a holder of only Basic Qualification may use on 147 MHz?

A.
1000 watts DC input (0% chose this)
B.
200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
C.
250 W DC input (0% chose this)
D.
25 watts PEP output (0% chose this)

1-17-03

At what point in your station is transceiver power measured?

A.
At the final amplifier input terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
On the antenna itself, after the feed line (0% chose this)
D.
At the power supply terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier (0% chose this)

1-17-04

What is the maximum transmitting output power an amateur station may use on 3750 kHz, if the operator has Basic and 5 w.p.m. qualifications?

A.
1000 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)
B.
1500 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)
C.
2000 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)
D.
560 watts PEP output for SSB operation (0% chose this)

1-17-05

What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use for SSB operation on 7055 kHz, if the operator has Basic and 12 w.p.m. qualifications?

A.
1000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
B.
560 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
C.
2000 watts PEP output (0% chose this)
D.
200 watts PEP output (0% chose this)

1-17-06

The DC power input to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage of a transmitter, used by a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification, shall not exceed:

A.
250 watts (0% chose this)
B.
500 watts (0% chose this)
C.
1000 watts (0% chose this)
D.
750 watts (0% chose this)

1-17-07

The maximum DC input to the final stage of an amateur transmitter, when the operator is the holder of both the Basic and Advanced qualifications, is:

A.
250 watts (0% chose this)
B.
1000 watts (0% chose this)
C.
1500 watts (0% chose this)
D.
500 watts (0% chose this)

1-17-08

The operator of an amateur station, who is the holder of a Basic Qualification, shall ensure that the station power, when expressed as RF output power measured across an impedance matched load, does not exceed:

A.
2500 watts peak power (0% chose this)
B.
1000 watts carrier power for transmitters producing other emissions (0% chose this)
C.
560 watts peak-envelope power, for transmitters producing any type of single sideband emission (0% chose this)
D.
150 watts peak power (0% chose this)

1-17-09

The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification is limited to a maximum of _______ watts when expressed as direct current input power to the anode or collector circuit of the transmitter stage supplying radio frequency energy to the antenna:

A.
1000 (0% chose this)
B.
750 (0% chose this)
C.
250 (0% chose this)
D.
100 (0% chose this)

1-18-01

What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the signals of other stations?

A.
Repeater station (0% chose this)
B.
Space station (0% chose this)
C.
Telecommand station (0% chose this)
D.
Beacon station (0% chose this)

1-18-02

An unmodulated carrier may be transmitted only:

A.
if the output to the final RF amplifier is kept under 5W (0% chose this)
B.
for brief tests on frequencies below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
when transmitting SSB (0% chose this)
D.
in frequency bands below 30 MHz (0% chose this)

1-18-03

Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band below _______ MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted, unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below the above frequency:

A.
29.7 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
50 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
144 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
29.5 MHz (0% chose this)

1-18-04

Which of the following statements is not correct? Radiotelephone signals may be retransmitted:

A.
in the 29.5-29.7 MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification. (0% chose this)
B.
in the 50-54 MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
C.
in the 144-148 MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification (0% chose this)
D.
in the 21 MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification (0% chose this)

1-19-01

When operating on frequencies below 148 MHz:

A.
the bandwidth for any emission must not exceed 3 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
the frequency stability of the transmitter must be at least two parts per million over a period of one hour (0% chose this)
C.
the frequency stability must be comparable to crystal control (0% chose this)
D.
an overmodulation indicator must be used (0% chose this)

1-19-02

A reliable means to prevent or indicate overmodulation must be employed at an amateur station if:

A.
radiotelephony is used (0% chose this)
B.
DC input power to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage is in excess of 250 watts (0% chose this)
C.
radiotelegraphy is used (0% chose this)
D.
persons other than the licensee use the station (0% chose this)

1-19-03

An amateur station using radiotelephony must install a device for indicating or preventing:

A.
resonance (0% chose this)
B.
antenna (0% chose this)
C.
power plate (0% chose this)
D.
voltage overmodulation (0% chose this)

1-19-04

The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is:

A.
75 percent (0% chose this)
B.
100 percent (0% chose this)
C.
50 percent (0% chose this)
D.
90 percent (0% chose this)

1-19-05

All amateur stations, regardless of the mode of transmission used, must be equipped with:

A.
a DC power meter (0% chose this)
B.
an overmodulation indicating device (0% chose this)
C.
a reliable means of determining the operating radio frequency (0% chose this)
D.
a dummy antenna (0% chose this)

1-19-06

The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is:

A.
90 percent (0% chose this)
B.
75 percent (0% chose this)
C.
50 percent (0% chose this)
D.
100 percent (0% chose this)

1-20-01

What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country?

A.
Messages of any type, if the foreign country allows third-party communications with Canada (0% chose this)
B.
Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature (0% chose this)
C.
Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative unimportance (0% chose this)
D.
Messages of any type (0% chose this)

1-20-02

The operator of an amateur station shall ensure that:

A.
communications are exchanged only with commercial stations (0% chose this)
B.
all communications are conducted in secret code (0% chose this)
C.
charges are properly applied to all third-party communications (0% chose this)
D.
communications are limited to messages of a technical or personal nature (0% chose this)

1-20-03

Which of the following is not a provision of the ITU Radio Regulations which apply to Canadian radio amateurs?

A.
It is forbidden to transmit international messages on behalf of third parties, unless those countries make special arrangements (0% chose this)
B.
Radiocommunications between countries shall be forbidden, if the administration of one of the countries objects (0% chose this)
C.
Transmissions between countries shall not include any messages of a technical nature, or remarks of a personal character (0% chose this)
D.
Administrations shall take such measures as they judge necessary to verify the operational and technical qualifications of amateurs (0% chose this)

1-20-04

The ITU Radio Regulations limit those radio amateurs, who have not demonstrated proficiency in Morse code, to frequencies above:

A.
1.8 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
3.5 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
28 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
none of the above (0% chose this)

1-20-05

In addition to complying with the Act and Radiocommunication Regulations, Canadian radio amateurs must also comply with the regulations of the:

A.
American Radio Relay League (0% chose this)
B.
International Telecommunication Union (0% chose this)
C.
Radio Amateurs of Canada Inc. (0% chose this)
D.
International Amateur Radio Union (0% chose this)

1-21-01

In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Canada?

A.
Region 4 (0% chose this)
B.
Region 3 (0% chose this)
C.
Region 2 (0% chose this)
D.
Region 1 (0% chose this)

1-21-02

A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station in the state of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?

A.
Those applicable to US radio amateurs (0% chose this)
B.
ITU Region 2 (0% chose this)
C.
ITU Region 3 (0% chose this)
D.
ITU Region 1 (0% chose this)

1-21-03

A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station 7 kilometres (4 miles) offshore from the coast of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits?

A.
Those applicable to Canadian radio amateurs (0% chose this)
B.
ITU Region 1 (0% chose this)
C.
Those applicable to US radio amateurs (0% chose this)
D.
ITU Region 2 (0% chose this)

1-21-04

Australia, Japan, and Southeast Asia are in which ITU Region?

A.
Region 4 (0% chose this)
B.
Region 2 (0% chose this)
C.
Region 3 (0% chose this)
D.
Region 1 (0% chose this)

1-21-05

Canada is location in ITU Region:

A.
region 1 (0% chose this)
B.
region 2 (0% chose this)
C.
region 3 (0% chose this)
D.
region 4 (0% chose this)

1-21-06

Which of the following answers is not correct? Canadian radio amateurs may apply for a CEPT international radio amateur licence for operation in any of the 32 CEPT countries, and:

A.
foreign radio amateurs, holding CEPT Class 2 licences, receive the same privileges in Canada as Canadians with Basic and 12 WPM qualifications (0% chose this)
B.
Canadian radio amateurs, holding Basic and 12 w.p.m. qualifications, will be granted CEPT Class 1 recognition (0% chose this)
C.
Canadian radio amateurs, holding Basic Qualification only, will be granted CEPT Class 2 recognition (operation only above 30 MHz) (0% chose this)
D.
foreign radio amateurs, holding CEPT Class 1 licences, receive the same privileges in Canada as Canadians with Basic and 12 w.p.m. qualifications (0% chose this)

1-21-07

Which of the following answers is not correct? Canadian radio Canadian CEPT international radio licences for operation in any of the 32 CEPT member amateurs may apply for countries, and:

A.
foreign radio amateurs, holding CEPT Class 1 licences, will receive recognition in Canada equal to Basic and 12 w.p.m. (0% chose this)
B.
Canadian radio amateurs, holding Basic Qualification only, will be granted CEPT Class 2 recognition (operation above 30 MHz) (0% chose this)
C.
foreign radio amateurs, holding CEPT Class 1 licences, will receive recognition in Canada equal to Basic Qualification only (0% chose this)
D.
Canadian radio amateurs, holding Basic and 12 w.p.m. qualifications, will be granted CEPT Class 1 recognition (0% chose this)

1-22-01

Which of these statements is not correct?

A.
The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate by an accredited volunteer examiner is to be negotiated (0% chose this)
B.
The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Industry Canada office is $5 per qualification (0% chose this)
C.
An accredited volunteer examiner must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic, Advanced, and 12 w.p.m. qualifications (0% chose this)
D.
The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Industry Canada office is $20 per qualification (0% chose this)

1-22-02

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.
A disabled candidate, taking a Morse code sending test, may be allowed to recite the examination text in Morse code sounds (0% chose this)
B.
Examinations for disabled candidates may be given orally, or tailored to the candidate's ability to complete the examination (0% chose this)
C.
A disabled candidate must pass a normal amateur radio certificate examination before being granted any qualification (0% chose this)
D.
The fee for taking an amateur radio certificate examination from an accredited volunteer examiner is to be negotiated (0% chose this)

1-22-03

The fee for taking examinations for amateur radio operator certificates by an accredited volunteer examiner is:

A.
to be negotiated between examiner and candidate (0% chose this)
B.
always $20 per qualification (0% chose this)
C.
always free of charge (0% chose this)
D.
always $20 per visit regardless of the number of examinations (0% chose this)

1-22-04

The fee for taking amateur radio certificate examinations at an Industry Canada office is:

A.
$20 per visit, regardless of the number of qualification examinations (0% chose this)
B.
no charge for qualification examinations (0% chose this)
C.
$5 per qualification examination (0% chose this)
D.
$20 per qualification (0% chose this)

1-23-01

Which of these statements about erection of an antenna structure is not correct?

A.
There is no requirement to receive the prior approval from Industry Canada to construct an antenna or its structure (0% chose this)
B.
A radio amateur may erect any size antenna structure without consulting neighbours or the local land-use authority (0% chose this)
C.
Industry Canada expects radio amateurs to address community concerns in a responsible manner (0% chose this)
D.
Prior to an installation, for which community concerns could be raised, radio amateurs must consult with their land-use authority (0% chose this)

1-23-02

Which of these statements is not correct?

A.
If a radio amateur erects an antenna structure without consulting the land-use authority, he must accept any consequences (0% chose this)
B.
For the purposes of environmental filing, amateur stations are considered to be Type 2 (non-site-specific) (0% chose this)
C.
For the purposes of environmental filing, amateur stations are considered to be Type 1 (site-specific) (0% chose this)
D.
Before installing an antenna structure which could raise community concerns, radio amateurs must consult with the land-use authority (0% chose this)

1-23-03

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.
Prior to installing an antenna structure, for which concerns could be raised, radio amateurs must consult their land-use authority (0% chose this)
B.
Radio amateurs must secure written permission of Industry Canada before installing an antenna structure (0% chose this)
C.
Should an antenna structure be installed without consulting the land-use authority, it must be with the acceptance of consequences (0% chose this)
D.
Industry Canada expects radio amateurs to responsibly address any community concerns, and to consider land-use authority requests (0% chose this)

1-23-04

Before erecting an antenna structure, for which community concerns could be raised, a radio amateur must consult with:

A.
Industry Canada only (0% chose this)
B.
the land-use authority, and possibly the neighbours (0% chose this)
C.
Industry Canada and Transport Canada (0% chose this)
D.
Industry Canada and the neighbours (0% chose this)

1-24-01

What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body?

A.
Canadian Standards Association (0% chose this)
B.
Environment Canada (0% chose this)
C.
Transport Canada (0% chose this)
D.
Health Canada (0% chose this)

1-24-02

What is the purpose of the Safety Code 6?

A.
It gives RF exposure limits for the human body (0% chose this)
B.
It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference protection (0% chose this)
C.
It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection (0% chose this)
D.
It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection (0% chose this)

1-24-03

According to Safety Code 6, what frequencies cause us the greatest risk from RF energy?

A.
300 to 3000 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
30 to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Above 1500 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
3 to 30 MHz (0% chose this)

1-24-04

Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency range of 30 MHz to 300 MHz, according to Safety Code 6?

A.
There are more transmitters operating in this range (0% chose this)
B.
There are fewer transmitters operating in this range (0% chose this)
C.
Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time (0% chose this)
D.
The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range (0% chose this)

1-24-05

According to Safety Code 6, what is the maximum safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio?

A.
10 watts (0% chose this)
B.
not specified — the exemption for portable equipment was withdrawn in 1999 (0% chose this)
C.
25 watts (0% chose this)
D.
125 milliwatts (0% chose this)

1-24-06

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.
Maximum exposure levels of RF fields to the general population, in the frequency range 10 to 300 MHz, is 28 VRMS/metre (E-field) (0% chose this)
B.
Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is increased above 300 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
Permissible exposure levels of RF fields decreases as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz (0% chose this)

1-24-07

The permissible exposure levels of RF fields:

A.
decreases, as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
increases, as frequency is increased above 300 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
increases, as frequency is increased from 10 MHz to 300 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
decreases, as frequency is increased above 300 MHz (0% chose this)

1-24-08

Which statement is not correct:

A.
maximum exposure level of RF fields for general population, in the range 10 to 300 MHz, is 28 V RMS per metre (Efield) (0% chose this)
B.
portable transmitters, operating below 1 GHz with a power output up to 7 watts, are excluded from Safety Code 6 requirements (0% chose this)
C.
maximum exposure level of RF fields for general population, in the range 30 to 300 Mhz, is .073 A RMS per metre (Hfield) (0% chose this)
D.
the exemption of portable transmitters, operating below 1 GHz with a power output up to 7 watts was removed from Safety Code 6 in 1999 (0% chose this)

1-24-09

Which statement is correct?

A.
Safety Code 6 regulates the operation of receivers only (0% chose this)
B.
the operation of portable transmitting equipment is of no concern in Safety Code 6 (0% chose this)
C.
portable transmitters, operating below 1 GHz, with an output power equal to, or less than 7 watts, are exempt from the requirements of Safety Code 6 (0% chose this)
D.
the exemption for portable transmitters was eliminated in Safety Code 6 in 1999 (0% chose this)

1-24-10

The maximum exposure level of RF fields for general population, in the frequency range 10 to 300 MHz is _______ V RMS per metre (E-field):

A.
7 (0% chose this)
B.
37 (0% chose this)
C.
0.073 (0% chose this)
D.
28 (0% chose this)

1-25-01

In the event of interference to a neighbour's FM receiver and stereo system, if the field strength of the amateur station signal is below _______ volts per metre, it will be deemed that the affected equipment's lack of immunity is the cause:

A.
2.8 (0% chose this)
B.
7.9 (0% chose this)
C.
1.83 (0% chose this)
D.
3.16 (0% chose this)

1-25-02

In the event of interference to a neighbour's television receiver, if the field strength of the amateur station signal exceeds _______ volts per metre, it will be deemed that the transmission is the cause of the problem:

A.
14.2 (0% chose this)
B.
1.83 (0% chose this)
C.
28 (0% chose this)
D.
3.75 (0% chose this)

1-25-03

Which of the following is defined as "any device, machinery or equipment, other than radio apparatus, the use or functioning of which is, or can be, adversely affected by radiocommunication emissions"?

A.
cable television converters (0% chose this)
B.
audio and video recorders (0% chose this)
C.
radio-sensitive equipment (0% chose this)
D.
broadcast receivers (0% chose this)

1-25-04

Which of the following types of equipment is not included in the list of field strength criteria for resolution of immunity complaints?

A.
broadcast transmitters (0% chose this)
B.
broadcast receivers (0% chose this)
C.
associated equipment (0% chose this)
D.
radio-sensitive equipment (0% chose this)

2-01-01

What is a good way to make contact on a repeater?

A.
Say the other operator's name, then your call sign three times (0% chose this)
B.
Say the call sign of the station you want to contact, then your call sign (0% chose this)
C.
Say, "Breaker, breaker," (0% chose this)
D.
Say the call sign of the station you want to contact three times (0% chose this)

2-01-02

What is the main purpose of a repeater?

A.
To link amateur stations with the telephone system (0% chose this)
B.
To increase the range of portable and mobile stations (0% chose this)
C.
To retransmit weather information during severe storm warnings (0% chose this)
D.
To make local information available 24 hours a day (0% chose this)

2-01-03

What is an autopatch?

A.
A device which connects a mobile station to the next repeater if it moves out of range of the first (0% chose this)
B.
A device that allows repeater users to make telephone calls from their stations (0% chose this)
C.
A device which locks other stations out of a repeater when there is an important conversation in progress (0% chose this)
D.
Something that automatically selects the strongest signal to be repeated (0% chose this)

2-01-04

What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?

A.
It lets a repeater have a rest period after heavy use (0% chose this)
B.
It logs repeater transmit time to predict when a repeater will fail (0% chose this)
C.
It tells how long someone has been using a repeater (0% chose this)
D.
It limits the amount of time someone can transmit on a repeater (0% chose this)

2-01-05

What is a CTCSS (or PL) tone?

A.
A tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission (0% chose this)
B.
A sub-audible tone added to a carrier which may cause a receiver to accept a signal (0% chose this)
C.
A special signal used for telemetry between amateur space stations and Earth stations (0% chose this)
D.
A special signal used for telecommand control of model craft (0% chose this)

2-01-06

How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the station's call sign?

A.
Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station (0% chose this)
B.
Say "break, break 79," then say the station's call sign (0% chose this)
C.
Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign (0% chose this)
D.
Wait for the station to call "CQ", then answer it (0% chose this)

2-01-07

Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a repeater?

A.
To check the SWR of the repeater (0% chose this)
B.
To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications (0% chose this)
C.
To dial up the repeater's autopatch (0% chose this)
D.
To listen for anyone else wanting to use the repeater (0% chose this)

2-01-08

Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?

A.
To keep long-distance charges down (0% chose this)
B.
To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond (0% chose this)
C.
A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from using the repeater (0% chose this)
D.
To see if the receiving station operator is still awake (0% chose this)

2-01-09

What is the proper way to break into a conversation on a repeater?

A.
Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired party (0% chose this)
B.
Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the conversation (0% chose this)
C.
Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking (0% chose this)
D.
Say your call sign during a break between transmissions (0% chose this)

2-01-10

What is the proper way to ask someone their location when using a repeater?

A.
What is your 20? (0% chose this)
B.
Where are you? (0% chose this)
C.
Locations are not normally told by radio (0% chose this)
D.
What is your 12? (0% chose this)

2-01-11

FM repeater operation on the 2 metre band uses one frequency for transmission and one for reception. The difference in frequency between the transmit and receive frequency is normally:

A.
800 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
600 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
1 000 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
400 kHz (0% chose this)

2-02-01

To make your call sign better understood when using voice transmissions, what should you do?

A.
Use any words which start with the same letters as your call sign for each letter of your call (0% chose this)
B.
Talk louder (0% chose this)
C.
Turn up your microphone gain (0% chose this)
D.
Use Standard International Phonetics for each letter of your call sign (0% chose this)

2-02-02

What can you use as an aid for correct station identification when using phone?

A.
Q signals (0% chose this)
B.
The Standard International Phonetic Alphabet (0% chose this)
C.
Unique words of your choice (0% chose this)
D.
A speech compressor (0% chose this)

2-02-03

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter A?

A.
Alpha (0% chose this)
B.
Able (0% chose this)
C.
Adam (0% chose this)
D.
America (0% chose this)

2-02-04

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter B?

A.
Brazil (0% chose this)
B.
Bravo (0% chose this)
C.
Borneo (0% chose this)
D.
Baker (0% chose this)

2-02-05

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter D?

A.
Dog (0% chose this)
B.
Denmark (0% chose this)
C.
David (0% chose this)
D.
Delta (0% chose this)

2-02-06

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter E?

A.
Easy (0% chose this)
B.
Edward (0% chose this)
C.
England (0% chose this)
D.
Echo (0% chose this)

2-02-07

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter G?

A.
Golf (0% chose this)
B.
George (0% chose this)
C.
Germany (0% chose this)
D.
Gibraltar (0% chose this)

2-02-08

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter I?

A.
Iran (0% chose this)
B.
Italy (0% chose this)
C.
India (0% chose this)
D.
Item (0% chose this)

2-02-09

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter L?

A.
Love (0% chose this)
B.
London (0% chose this)
C.
Luxembourg (0% chose this)
D.
Lima (0% chose this)

2-02-10

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter P?

A.
Portugal (0% chose this)
B.
Papa (0% chose this)
C.
Paris (0% chose this)
D.
Peter (0% chose this)

2-02-11

What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter R?

A.
Romeo (0% chose this)
B.
Roger (0% chose this)
C.
Radio (0% chose this)
D.
Romania (0% chose this)

2-03-01

What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using voice?

A.
Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times (0% chose this)
B.
Say "CQ" once, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times (0% chose this)
C.
Say "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once (0% chose this)
D.
Say "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once (0% chose this)

2-03-02

How should you answer a voice CQ call?

A.
Say the other station's call sign at least five times phonetically, followed by "this is," then your call sign twice (0% chose this)
B.
Say the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is," then your call sign given phonetically (0% chose this)
C.
Say the other station's call sign at least three times, followed by "this is," and your call sign at least five times phonetically (0% chose this)
D.
Say the other station's call sign at least ten times, followed by "this is," then your call sign at least twice (0% chose this)

2-03-03

What is simplex operation?

A.
Transmitting and receiving over a wide area (0% chose this)
B.
Transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another (0% chose this)
C.
Transmitting one-way communications (0% chose this)
D.
Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency (0% chose this)

2-03-04

When should you use simplex operation instead of a repeater?

A.
When a contact is possible without using a repeater (0% chose this)
B.
When the most reliable communications are needed (0% chose this)
C.
When an emergency telephone call is needed (0% chose this)
D.
When you are traveling and need some local information (0% chose this)

2-03-05

Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF frequencies?

A.
To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance communication (0% chose this)
B.
Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF (0% chose this)
C.
Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally (0% chose this)
D.
Because signals are louder on VHF and UHF frequencies (0% chose this)

2-03-06

Why should simplex be used where possible, instead of using a repeater?

A.
Your antenna's effectiveness will be better tested (0% chose this)
B.
Long distance toll charges will be avoided (0% chose this)
C.
The repeater will not be tied up unnecessarily (0% chose this)
D.
Signal range will be increased (0% chose this)

2-03-07

If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you find out if you could communicate using simplex instead?

A.
See if a third station can clearly receive both of you (0% chose this)
B.
See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater (0% chose this)
C.
See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's input frequency (0% chose this)
D.
See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower frequency band (0% chose this)

2-03-08

If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why would it be good amateur practice to change to another frequency?

A.
Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical (0% chose this)
B.
The repeater's output power may ruin your station's receiver (0% chose this)
C.
There are more repeater operators than simplex operators (0% chose this)
D.
Changing the repeater's frequency requires the authorization of Industry Canada (0% chose this)

2-03-09

Which sideband is commonly used for 20-metre phone operation?

A.
Upper (0% chose this)
B.
Lower (0% chose this)
C.
FM (0% chose this)
D.
Double (0% chose this)

2-03-10

Which sideband is commonly used on 3755 kHz for phone operation?

A.
FM (0% chose this)
B.
Lower (0% chose this)
C.
Double (0% chose this)
D.
Upper (0% chose this)

2-03-11

What is the best method to tell if a band is "open" for communication with a particular distant location?

A.
Ask others on your local 2 metre FM repeater (0% chose this)
B.
Telephone an experienced local amateur (0% chose this)
C.
Look at the propagation forecasts in an amateur radio magazine (0% chose this)
D.
Listen for signals from that area from an amateur beacon station or a foreign broadcast or television station on a nearby frequency (0% chose this)

2-04-01

What should you do before you transmit on any frequency?

A.
Check your antenna for resonance at the selected frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Make sure the SWR on your antenna feed line is high enough (0% chose this)
D.
Listen to make sure that someone will be able to hear you (0% chose this)

2-04-02

If you contact another station and your signal is extremely strong and perfectly readable, what adjustment might you make to your transmitter?

A.
Turn on your speech processor (0% chose this)
B.
Reduce your SWR (0% chose this)
C.
Continue with your contact, making no changes (0% chose this)
D.
Turn down your power output to the minimum necessary (0% chose this)

2-04-03

What is one way to shorten transmitter tune-up time on the air to cut down on interference?

A.
Use a random wire antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Tune up on 40 metres first, then switch to the desired band (0% chose this)
C.
Use twin lead instead of coaxial cable feed lines (0% chose this)
D.
Tune the transmitter into a dummy load (0% chose this)

2-04-04

How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy transmitter testing or loading-up procedure?

A.
Choose an unoccupied frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Use a non-resonant antenna (0% chose this)
C.
Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure (0% chose this)
D.
Use a dummy load (0% chose this)

2-04-05

Why would you use a dummy antenna?

A.
To give comparative signal reports (0% chose this)
B.
To allow antenna tuning without causing interference (0% chose this)
C.
It is faster to tune (0% chose this)
D.
To reduce output power (0% chose this)

2-04-06

If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before the net begins?

A.
Conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the regular net frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Reduce your output power and start the net as usual (0% chose this)
C.
Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you over the existing activity (0% chose this)
D.
Cancel the net for that day (0% chose this)

2-04-07

If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another station are using, what should you do?

A.
As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear you (0% chose this)
C.
Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations may use it (0% chose this)
D.
Turn off your radio (0% chose this)

2-04-08

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice other activity on the same increasing interference from frequency, what should you do?

A.
Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were there first (0% chose this)
B.
Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator (0% chose this)
C.
Increase the output power of your transmitter to overcome the interference (0% chose this)
D.
Move your contact to another frequency (0% chose this)

2-04-09

When selecting a single- sideband phone transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize interference?

A.
Approximately 3 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
150 to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
Approximately 6 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
Approximately 10 kHz (0% chose this)

2-04-10

What is a band plan?

A.
A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band published by Industry Canada (0% chose this)
B.
A guideline for using different operating modes within an amateur band (0% chose this)
C.
A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest (0% chose this)
D.
A guideline for deviating from amateur frequency band allocations (0% chose this)

2-04-11

Before transmitting, the first thing you should do is:

A.
ask if the frequency is occupied (0% chose this)
B.
make an announcement on the frequency indicating that you intend to make a call (0% chose this)
C.
decrease your receiver's volume (0% chose this)
D.
listen carefully so as not to interrupt communications already in progress (0% chose this)

2-05-01

What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using Morse code?

A.
Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent once (0% chose this)
B.
Send the letters "CQ" ten times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent once (0% chose this)
C.
Send the letters "CQ" over and over (0% chose this)
D.
Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent three times (0% chose this)

2-05-02

How should you answer a Morse code"CQ" call?

A.
Send your call sign four times (0% chose this)
B.
Send the other station's call sign once, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign four times (0% chose this)
C.
Send your call sign followed by your name, station location and a signal report (0% chose this)
D.
Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign twice (0% chose this)

2-05-03

At what speed should a Morse code CQ call be transmitted?

A.
At any speed which you can reliably receive (0% chose this)
B.
At any speed below 5 WPM (0% chose this)
C.
At the highest speed your keyer will operate (0% chose this)
D.
At the highest speed at which you can control the keyer (0% chose this)

2-05-04

What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?

A.
Calling any station (0% chose this)
B.
Call on the quarter hour (0% chose this)
C.
An antenna is being tested (0% chose this)
D.
Only the station "CQ" should answer (0% chose this)

2-05-05

What is the meaning of the procedural signal "DE"?

A.
Received all correctly (0% chose this)
B.
From (0% chose this)
C.
Calling any station (0% chose this)
D.
Directional Emissions (0% chose this)

2-05-06

What is the meaning of the procedural signal "K"?

A.
End of message (0% chose this)
B.
Any station transmit (0% chose this)
C.
Called station only transmit (0% chose this)
D.
All received correctly (0% chose this)

2-05-07

What is meant by the term "DX"?

A.
Calling any station (0% chose this)
B.
Distant station (0% chose this)
C.
Go ahead (0% chose this)
D.
Best regards (0% chose this)

2-05-08

What is the meaning of the term "73"?

A.
Long distance (0% chose this)
B.
Love and kisses (0% chose this)
C.
Go ahead (0% chose this)
D.
Best regards (0% chose this)

2-05-09

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy ?

A.
Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys (0% chose this)
B.
Incoming signals are received between transmitted Morse dots (0% chose this)
C.
An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission (0% chose this)
D.
Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK" (0% chose this)

2-05-10

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference?

A.
150 to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
5 to 50 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
1 to 3 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
3 to 6 kHz (0% chose this)

2-05-11

Good Morse telegraphy operators:

A.
always give stations a good readability report (0% chose this)
B.
listen to the frequency to make sure that it is not in use before transmitting (0% chose this)
C.
save time by leaving out spaces between words (0% chose this)
D.
tune the transmitter using the operating antenna (0% chose this)

2-06-01

What are "RST" signal reports?

A.
A short way to describe transmitter power (0% chose this)
B.
A short way to describe signal reception (0% chose this)
C.
A short way to describe sunspot activity (0% chose this)
D.
A short way to describe ionospheric conditions (0% chose this)

2-06-02

What does "RST" mean in a signal report?

A.
Recovery, signal strength, tempo (0% chose this)
B.
Recovery, signal speed, tone (0% chose this)
C.
Readability, signal speed, tempo (0% chose this)
D.
Readability, signal strength, tone (0% chose this)

2-06-03

What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 5 7"?

A.
Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak (0% chose this)

2-06-04

What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 3 3"?

A.
Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength (0% chose this)
B.
The station is located at latitude 33 degrees (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength (0% chose this)
D.
The contact is serial number 33 (0% chose this)

2-06-05

What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 5 9 plus 20 dB"?

A.
The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity (0% chose this)
B.
Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher (0% chose this)
C.
A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels greater than strength 9 (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100 (0% chose this)

2-06-06

What is used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver?

A.
An SSB meter (0% chose this)
B.
A signal deviation meter (0% chose this)
C.
An S meter (0% chose this)
D.
An RST meter (0% chose this)

2-06-07

If the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times, how might a nearby receiver's S-meter reading change?

A.
Increase by approximately four S units (0% chose this)
B.
Increase by approximately one S unit (0% chose this)
C.
Decrease by approximately four S units (0% chose this)
D.
Decrease by approximately one S unit (0% chose this)

2-06-08

By how many times must the power output of a transmitter be increased to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S8 to S9?

A.
Approximately 5 times (0% chose this)
B.
Approximately 3 times (0% chose this)
C.
Approximately 4 times (0% chose this)
D.
Approximately 2 times (0% chose this)

2-06-09

What does "RST 579" mean in a Morse code contact?

A.
Your signal is perfectly readable, moderately strong, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is perfectly readable, weak strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is fairly readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is barely readable, moderately strong, and with faint ripple (0% chose this)

2-06-10

What does "RST 459" mean in a Morse code contact?

A.
Your signal is very readable, very strong, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is barely readable, very weak, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is moderately readable, very weak, and with hum on the tone (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is quite readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone (0% chose this)

2-06-11

What is the meaning of "Your signal report is 1 1"?

A.
Your signal is unreadable, and barely perceptible (0% chose this)
B.
Your signal is 11 dB over S9 (0% chose this)
C.
Your signal is first class in readability and first class in strength (0% chose this)
D.
Your signal is very readable and very strong (0% chose this)

2-07-01

What is the meaning of the Q signal"QRS"?

A.
Interference from static (0% chose this)
B.
Send "RST" report (0% chose this)
C.
Radio station location is: (0% chose this)
D.
Send more slowly (0% chose this)

2-07-02

What is one meaning of the Q signal"QTH"?

A.
Stop sending (0% chose this)
B.
My name is (0% chose this)
C.
My location is (0% chose this)
D.
Time here is (0% chose this)

2-07-03

What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in use before transmitting on CW?

A.
QRL? (0% chose this)
B.
QRV? (0% chose this)
C.
QRU? (0% chose this)
D.
QRZ? (0% chose this)

2-07-04

What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSY"?

A.
Use more power (0% chose this)
B.
Send faster (0% chose this)
C.
Change frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Send more slowly (0% chose this)

2-07-05

What is the meaning of the Q signal"QSO"?

A.
A contact is ending (0% chose this)
B.
A contact is in progress (0% chose this)
C.
A conversation is desired (0% chose this)
D.
A contact is confirmed (0% chose this)

2-07-06

What is the proper Q signal to use to ask if someone is calling you on CW?

A.
QRZ? (0% chose this)
B.
QSL? (0% chose this)
C.
QRL? (0% chose this)
D.
QRT? (0% chose this)

2-07-07

The signal "QRM" signifies:

A.
I am troubled by static (0% chose this)
B.
your signals are fading (0% chose this)
C.
is my transmission being interfered with (0% chose this)
D.
I am being interfered with (0% chose this)

2-07-08

The signal "QRN" means:

A.
I am busy (0% chose this)
B.
are you troubled by static (0% chose this)
C.
I am being interfered with (0% chose this)
D.
I am troubled by static (0% chose this)

2-07-09

The "Q signal" indicating that you want the other station to send slower is:

A.
QRM (0% chose this)
B.
QRS (0% chose this)
C.
QRL (0% chose this)
D.
QRN (0% chose this)

2-07-10

"Who is calling me" is denoted by the "Q signal":

A.
QRK? (0% chose this)
B.
QRP? (0% chose this)
C.
QRZ? (0% chose this)
D.
QRM? (0% chose this)

2-07-11

The "Q signal" which signifies "I will call you again" is:

A.
QRX (0% chose this)
B.
QRZ (0% chose this)
C.
QRS (0% chose this)
D.
QRT (0% chose this)

2-08-01

When may you use your amateur station to transmit an "SOS" or "Mayday"?

A.
Never (0% chose this)
B.
Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour) (0% chose this)
C.
Only in case of a severe weather watch (0% chose this)
D.
In a life-threatening distress situation (0% chose this)

2-08-02

If you are in contact with another station and you hear an emergency call for help on your frequency, what should you do?

A.
Immediately stop your contact and take the emergency call (0% chose this)
B.
Tell the calling station that the frequency is in use (0% chose this)
C.
Direct the calling station to the nearest emergency net frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Call your local police station and inform them of the emergency call (0% chose this)

2-08-03

What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone?

A.
Say "SOS" several times (0% chose this)
B.
Say "Emergency" several times (0% chose this)
C.
Say "Mayday" several times (0% chose this)
D.
Say "Help" several times (0% chose this)

2-08-04

What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW?

A.
CQD (0% chose this)
B.
QRRR (0% chose this)
C.
SOS (0% chose this)
D.
Mayday (0% chose this)

2-08-05

What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to signal a distress call?

A.
Say "Emergency" three times (0% chose this)
B.
Say "SOS," then your call sign (0% chose this)
C.
Say "Break" twice, then your call sign (0% chose this)
D.
Say "Help" as many times as it takes toget someone to answer (0% chose this)

2-08-06

Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur station without using commercial AC power lines?

A.
So you will comply with rules (0% chose this)
B.
So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed (0% chose this)
C.
So you may provide communications in an emergency (0% chose this)
D.
So you may use your station while mobile (0% chose this)

2-08-07

What is the most important accessory to have for a hand- held radio in an emergency?

A.
Several sets of charged batteries (0% chose this)
B.
An extra antenna (0% chose this)
C.
A portable amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
A microphone headset for hands-free operation (0% chose this)

2-08-08

Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency?

A.
A parabolic dish (0% chose this)
B.
A three-element Yagi (0% chose this)
C.
A dipole (0% chose this)
D.
A three-element quad (0% chose this)

2-08-09

If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in, what should you do?

A.
Continue your communication because you were on frequency first (0% chose this)
B.
Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance (0% chose this)
C.
Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have emergency rights to the frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what assistance may be needed (0% chose this)

2-08-10

In order of priority, a distress message comes before:

A.
no other messages (0% chose this)
B.
a government priority message (0% chose this)
C.
an urgency message (0% chose this)
D.
a safety message (0% chose this)

2-08-11

If you hear distress traffic and are unable to render assistance you should:

A.
maintain watch until you are certain that assistance will be forthcoming (0% chose this)
B.
enter the details in the log book and take no further action (0% chose this)
C.
take no action (0% chose this)
D.
tell all other stations to cease transmitting (0% chose this)

2-09-01

What is a "QSL card"?

A.
A Notice of Violation from Industry Canada (0% chose this)
B.
A written proof of communication between two amateurs (0% chose this)
C.
A postcard reminding you when your station license will expire (0% chose this)
D.
A letter or postcard from an amateur pen pal (0% chose this)

2-09-02

What is an azimuthal map?

A.
A map projection centered on the North Pole (0% chose this)
B.
A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator (0% chose this)
C.
A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator (0% chose this)
D.
A map projection centered on a particular location, used to determine the shortest path between points on the earth's surface (0% chose this)

2-09-03

What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station?

A.
Mercator (0% chose this)
B.
Polar projection (0% chose this)
C.
Topographical (0% chose this)
D.
Azimuthal (0% chose this)

2-09-04

A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its short-path heading?

A.
45 degrees (0% chose this)
B.
90 degrees (0% chose this)
C.
270 degrees (0% chose this)
D.
180 degrees (0% chose this)

2-09-05

What method is used by radio amateurs to provide written proof of communication between two amateur stations?

A.
A signed post card listing contact date, time, frequency, mode and power, called a "QSL card" (0% chose this)
B.
A two-page letter containing a photograph of the operator (0% chose this)
C.
A radiogram sent over the CW traffic net (0% chose this)
D.
A packet message (0% chose this)

2-09-06

You hear other local stations talking to radio amateurs in New Zealand but you don't hear those stations with your beam aimed on the normal compass bearing to New Zealand. What should you try?

A.
Point your antenna toward Newington, CT (0% chose this)
B.
Point your antenna to the north (0% chose this)
C.
Point your beam 180 degrees away from that bearing and listen for the stations arriving on the "long-path" (0% chose this)
D.
Point your antenna to the south (0% chose this)

2-09-07

Which statement about recording all contacts and unanswered "CQ calls" in a station logbook or computer log is not correct?

A.
A log is important for recording contacts for operating awards (0% chose this)
B.
A logbook is required by Industry Canada (0% chose this)
C.
A well-kept log preserves your fondest amateur radio memories for years (0% chose this)
D.
A log is important for handling neighbour interference complaints (0% chose this)

2-09-08

Why would it be useful to have an azimuthal world map centred on the location of your station?

A.
Because it shows the compass bearing from your station to any place on earth, for antenna planning and pointing (0% chose this)
B.
Because it looks impressive (0% chose this)
C.
Because it shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator (0% chose this)
D.
Because it shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite moves west (0% chose this)

2-09-09

Station logs and confirmation (QSL) cards are always kept in UTC (Universal Time Coordinated). Where is that time based?

A.
Greenwich, England (0% chose this)
B.
Geneva, Switzerland (0% chose this)
C.
Ottawa, Canada (0% chose this)
D.
Newington, CT (0% chose this)

2-09-10

When referring to contacts in the station log, what do the letters UTC mean?

A.
Universal Time Coordinated (formerly Greenwich Mean Time - GMT) (0% chose this)
B.
Universal Time Constant (0% chose this)
C.
Unlisted Telephone Call (0% chose this)
D.
Unlimited Time Capsule (0% chose this)

2-09-11

To set your station clock accurately to UTC, you could receive the most accurate time off the air from _______?

A.
A non-directional beacon station (0% chose this)
B.
Your local television station (0% chose this)
C.
CHU, WWV or WWVH (0% chose this)
D.
Your local radio station (0% chose this)

3-01-01

A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected:

A.
as close as possible to the transceiver output (0% chose this)
B.
as close as possible to the antenna tuner output (0% chose this)
C.
as close as possible to the antenna midway between the transceiver and antenna (0% chose this)
D.
(0% chose this)

3-01-02

A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected:

A.
as close as possible to the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
as close as possible to the antenna tuner output (0% chose this)
C.
as close as possible to the linear amplifier input (0% chose this)
D.
as close as possible to the linear amplifier output (0% chose this)

3-01-03

In designing an HF station, which component would you use to reduce the effects of harmonic radiation?

A.
Dummy load (0% chose this)
B.
Low pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
D.
SWR bridge (0% chose this)

3-01-04

Which component in an HF station is the most useful for determining the effectiveness of the antenna system?

A.
SWR bridge (0% chose this)
B.
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
C.
Linear amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
Dummy load (0% chose this)

3-01-05

Of the components in an HF station, which component would normally be connected closest to the antenna, antenna tuner and dummy load?

A.
Transceiver (0% chose this)
B.
Low pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
D.
SWR bridge (0% chose this)

3-01-06

Of the components in an HF station, which component would be used to match impedances between the transceiver and antenna?

A.
Antenna tuner (0% chose this)
B.
Antenna switch (0% chose this)
C.
Dummy load (0% chose this)
D.
SWR bridge (0% chose this)

3-01-07

In an HF station, which component is temporarily connected in the tuning process?

A.
SWR bridge (0% chose this)
B.
Low pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
Antenna tuner (0% chose this)
D.
Dummy load (0% chose this)

3-01-08

In an HF station, the antenna tuner is usually used for matching the transceiver with:

A.
most antennas when operating below 14 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
most antennas when operating above 14 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
mono-band Yagi type antennas (0% chose this)
D.
tri-band Yagi antennas (0% chose this)

3-01-09

In an HF Station, the antenna tuner is commonly used:

A.
with most antennas when operating above 14 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
to tune into dummy loads (0% chose this)
C.
to tune low pass filters (0% chose this)
D.
with most antennas when operating below 14 MHz (0% chose this)

3-02-01

In a frequency modulation transmitter, the input to the speech amplifier is connected to the:

A.
microphone (0% chose this)
B.
modulator (0% chose this)
C.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)

3-02-02

In a frequency modulation transmitter, the microphone is connected to the:

A.
modulator (0% chose this)
B.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
oscillator (0% chose this)

3-02-03

In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is in between the speech amplifier and the oscillator.

A.
modulator (0% chose this)
B.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
microphone (0% chose this)
D.
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)

3-02-04

In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is located between the modulator and the frequency multiplier.

A.
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
microphone (0% chose this)

3-02-05

In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is located between the oscillator and the power amplifier.

A.
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
B.
microphone (0% chose this)
C.
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
modulator (0% chose this)

3-02-06

In a frequency modulation transmitter, the _______ is located between the frequency multiplier and the antenna.

A.
modulator (0% chose this)
B.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
oscillator (0% chose this)

3-02-07

In a frequency modulation transmitter, the power amplifier output is connected to the:

A.
frequency multiplier (0% chose this)
B.
microphone (0% chose this)
C.
antenna (0% chose this)
D.
modulator (0% chose this)

3-03-01

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is connected to the input of the radio frequency amplifier.

A.
mixer (0% chose this)
B.
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
C.
antenna (0% chose this)
D.
limiter (0% chose this)

3-03-02

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the antenna and the mixer.

A.
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-03-03

In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the high frequency oscillator is fed to the:

A.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
limiter (0% chose this)
C.
antenna (0% chose this)
D.
mixer (0% chose this)

3-03-04

In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the _______ is connected to the mixer.

A.
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
B.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
speaker and/or headphones (0% chose this)
D.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)

3-03-05

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the mixer and the intermediate frequency amplifier.

A.
filter (0% chose this)
B.
limiter (0% chose this)
C.
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-03-06

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the filter and the limiter.

A.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
mixer (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-03-07

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is in between the intermediate frequency amplifier and the frequency discriminator.

A.
filter (0% chose this)
B.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
limiter (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-03-08

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the limiter and the audio frequency amplifier.

A.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
speaker and/or headphones (0% chose this)
C.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)

3-03-09

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ is located between the speaker and/or headphones and the frequency discriminator.

A.
limiter (0% chose this)
B.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-03-10

In a frequency modulation receiver, the _______ connects to the audio frequency amplifier output.

A.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
frequency discriminator (0% chose this)
C.
speaker and/or headphones (0% chose this)
D.
limiter (0% chose this)

3-04-01

In a CW transmitter, the output from the _______ is connected to the driver/buffer.

A.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
telegraph key (0% chose this)
C.
master oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
power supply (0% chose this)

3-04-02

In a typical CW transmitter, the _______ is the primary source of direct current.

A.
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
B.
power supply (0% chose this)
C.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
master oscillator (0% chose this)

3-04-03

In a CW transmitter, the _______ is between the master oscillator and the power amplifier.

A.
audio amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
C.
power supply (0% chose this)
D.
telegraph key (0% chose this)

3-04-04

In a CW transmitter, the _______ controls when RF energy is applied to the antenna.

A.
master oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
C.
telegraph key (0% chose this)
D.
power amplifier (0% chose this)

3-04-05

In a CW transmitter, the _______ is in between the driver/buffer stage and the antenna.

A.
power supply (0% chose this)
B.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
telegraph key (0% chose this)
D.
master oscillator (0% chose this)

3-04-06

In a CW transmitter, the output of the _______ is transferred to the antenna.

A.
power amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
driver/buffer (0% chose this)
C.
power supply (0% chose this)
D.
master oscillator (0% chose this)

3-05-01

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the antenna is connected to the _______.

A.
product detector (0% chose this)
B.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-05-02

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the _______ is connected to the mixer.

A.
filter (0% chose this)
B.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-05-03

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _______ is connected to the radio frequency amplifier and the high frequency oscillator.

A.
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
product detector (0% chose this)
C.
mixer (0% chose this)
D.
filter (0% chose this)

3-05-04

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the _______ is connected to the mixer.

A.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
product detector (0% chose this)

3-05-05

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _______ is in between the mixer and intermediate frequency amplifier.

A.
filter (0% chose this)
B.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
product detector (0% chose this)

3-05-06

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _______ is in between the filter and product detector.

A.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-05-07

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _______ output is connected to the audio frequency amplifier.

A.
product detector (0% chose this)
B.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-05-08

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the _______ is connected to the product detector.

A.
mixer (0% chose this)
B.
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-05-09

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _______ is connected to the output of the product detector.

A.
intermediate frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
audio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
high frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)

3-05-10

In a single sideband and CW receiver, the _______ is connected to the output of the audio frequency amplifier.

A.
speaker and/or headphones (0% chose this)
B.
mixer (0% chose this)
C.
radio frequency amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
beat frequency oscillator (0% chose this)

3-06-01

In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _______ is connected to the balanced modulator.

A.
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
mixer (0% chose this)

3-06-02

In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _______ is connected to the filter.

A.
microphone (0% chose this)
B.
balanced modulator (0% chose this)
C.
mixer (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)

3-06-03

In a single sideband transmitter, the _______ is in between the balanced modulator and the mixer.

A.
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
filter (0% chose this)
D.
microphone (0% chose this)

3-06-04

In a single sideband transmitter, the _______ is connected to the speech amplifier.

A.
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
filter (0% chose this)
C.
mixer (0% chose this)
D.
microphone (0% chose this)

3-06-05

In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _______ is connected to the balanced modulator.

A.
filter (0% chose this)
B.
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
speech amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
linear amplifier (0% chose this)

3-06-06

In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the variable frequency oscillator is connected to the _______.

A.
antenna (0% chose this)
B.
balanced modulator (0% chose this)
C.
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
mixer (0% chose this)

3-06-07

In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the _______ is connected to the mixer.

A.
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
antenna (0% chose this)

3-06-08

In an single sideband transmitter, the _______ is in between the mixer and the antenna.

A.
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
linear amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
balanced modulator (0% chose this)
D.
radio frequency oscillator (0% chose this)

3-06-09

In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the linear amplifier is connected to the _______.

A.
antenna (0% chose this)
B.
filter (0% chose this)
C.
variable frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
speech amplifier (0% chose this)

3-07-01

In a digital system, the _______ is controlled by the computer.

A.
antenna (0% chose this)
B.
power supply (0% chose this)
C.
transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
input/output (0% chose this)

3-07-02

In a digital system, the modem is connected to the _______.

A.
amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
computer (0% chose this)
C.
antenna (0% chose this)
D.
input/output (0% chose this)

3-07-03

In a digital system, the transceiver is connected to the _______.

A.
modem (0% chose this)
B.
computer (0% chose this)
C.
scanner (0% chose this)
D.
input/output (0% chose this)

3-07-04

In a digital system, the modem is connected to the _______.

A.
input/output (0% chose this)
B.
transceiver (0% chose this)
C.
scanner (0% chose this)
D.
antenna (0% chose this)

3-08-01

In a regulated power supply, the transformer connects to an external source which is referred to as _______.

A.
regulator (0% chose this)
B.
input (0% chose this)
C.
filter (0% chose this)
D.
rectifier (0% chose this)

3-08-02

In a regulated power supply, the _______ is between the input and the rectifier.

A.
transformer (0% chose this)
B.
output (0% chose this)
C.
regulator (0% chose this)
D.
filter (0% chose this)

3-08-03

In a regulated power supply, the _______ is between the transformer and the filter.

A.
rectifier (0% chose this)
B.
input (0% chose this)
C.
output (0% chose this)
D.
regulator (0% chose this)

3-08-04

In a regulated power supply, the output of the rectifier is connected to the _______.

A.
filter (0% chose this)
B.
output (0% chose this)
C.
transformer (0% chose this)
D.
regulator (0% chose this)

3-08-05

In a regulated power supply, the output of the filter connects to the _______.

A.
regulator (0% chose this)
B.
transformer (0% chose this)
C.
rectifier (0% chose this)
D.
output (0% chose this)

3-08-06

In a regulated power supply, the _______ is connected to the regulator.

A.
output (0% chose this)
B.
rectifier (0% chose this)
C.
input (0% chose this)
D.
transformer (0% chose this)

3-09-01

In a Yagi-Uda 3 element directional antenna, the _______ is primarily for mechanical purposes.

A.
reflector (0% chose this)
B.
driven element (0% chose this)
C.
director (0% chose this)
D.
boom (0% chose this)

3-09-02

In a Yagi-Uda 3 element directional antenna, the _______ is the longest radiating element.

A.
director (0% chose this)
B.
driven element (0% chose this)
C.
reflector (0% chose this)
D.
boom (0% chose this)

3-09-03

In a Yagi-Uda 3 element directional antenna, the _______ is the shortest radiating element.

A.
boom (0% chose this)
B.
reflector (0% chose this)
C.
director (0% chose this)
D.
driven element (0% chose this)

3-09-04

In a Yagi-Uda 3 element directional antenna, the _______ is not the longest nor the shortest radiating element.

A.
boom (0% chose this)
B.
director (0% chose this)
C.
driven element (0% chose this)
D.
reflector (0% chose this)

3-10-01

Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth?

A.
CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice (0% chose this)
B.
CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice (0% chose this)
C.
CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice (0% chose this)
D.
RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice (0% chose this)

3-10-02

The figure in a receiver's specifications which indicates its sensitivity is the:

A.
signal plus noise to noise ratio (0% chose this)
B.
audio output in watts (0% chose this)
C.
bandwidth of the IF in kilohertz (0% chose this)
D.
number of RF amplifiers (0% chose this)

3-10-03

If two receivers of different sensitivity are compared, the less sensitive receiver will produce:

A.
a steady oscillator drift (0% chose this)
B.
more than one signal (0% chose this)
C.
less signal or more noise (0% chose this)
D.
more signal or less noise (0% chose this)

3-10-04

Which of the following modes of transmission is usually detected with a product detector?

A.
Double sideband full carrier (0% chose this)
B.
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
C.
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Single sideband suppressed carrier (0% chose this)

3-10-05

A receiver designed for SSB reception must have a BFO (beat frequency oscillator) because:

A.
it beats with the received carrier to produce the other sideband (0% chose this)
B.
it reduces the passband of the IF stages (0% chose this)
C.
the suppressed carrier must be replaced for detection (0% chose this)
D.
it phases out the unwanted sideband signal (0% chose this)

3-10-06

A receiver receives an incoming signal of 3.54 MHz, and the local oscillator produces a signal of 3.995 MHz. To which frequency should the IF be tuned?

A.
7.435 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
3.995 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
455 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
3.54 MHz (0% chose this)

3-10-07

What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission?

A.
A notch filter (0% chose this)
B.
A band pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
An all pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
A pi-network filter (0% chose this)

3-10-08

The three main parameters against which the quality of a receiver is measured are:

A.
selectivity, stability and frequency range (0% chose this)
B.
sensitivity, stability and crossmodulation (0% chose this)
C.
sensitivity, selectivity and image rejection (0% chose this)
D.
sensitivity, selectivity and stability (0% chose this)

3-10-09

A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, one at 250 Hz, one at 500 Hz, one at 2.4 kHz, and one at 6 kHz. If you were listening to single sideband, which filter would you utilize?

A.
250 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
2.4 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
500 Hz (0% chose this)

3-10-10

A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, one at 250 Hz, one at 500 Hz, one at 2.4 kHz and one at 6 kHz. You are copying a CW transmission and there is a great deal of interference. Which one of the filters would you choose?

A.
500 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
2.4 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
6 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
250 Hz (0% chose this)

3-10-11

Selectivity can be placed in the audio stages of a receiver by the utilization of RC active or passive audio filters. If you were to copy CW, which of the following bandpasses would you choose?

A.
2100 - 2300 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
300 - 2700 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
750 - 850 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
100 - 1100 Hz (0% chose this)

3-11-01

What does chirp mean?

A.
A high-pitched tone which is received along with a CW signal (0% chose this)
B.
A small change in a transmitter's frequency each time it is keyed (0% chose this)
C.
A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up (0% chose this)
D.
An overload in a receiver's audio circuit whenever CW is received (0% chose this)

3-11-02

What can be done to keep a CW transmitter from chirping?

A.
Add a key-click filter (0% chose this)
B.
Keep the power supply voltages very steady (0% chose this)
C.
Keep the power supply current very steady (0% chose this)
D.
(0% chose this)

3-11-03

What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a driver and a power amplifier?

A.
A crystal-controlled transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
A VFO-controlled transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
A single-sideband transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
A packet-radio transmitter (0% chose this)

3-11-04

What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information?

A.
Phase modulation (0% chose this)
B.
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
C.
Amplitude-rectification modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)

3-11-05

In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio?

A.
Frequency modulation (0% chose this)
B.
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
C.
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Frequency shift keying (0% chose this)

3-11-06

Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as:

A.
a series of key-clicks (0% chose this)
B.
a continuous carrier (0% chose this)
C.
an interrupted carrier (0% chose this)
D.
a voice-modulated carrier (0% chose this)

3-11-07

A mismatched antenna or feedline may present an incorrect load to the transmitter. The result may be:

A.
loss of modulation in the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
B.
the driver stage will not deliver power to the final (0% chose this)
C.
excessive heat produced in the final transmitter stage (0% chose this)
D.
the output tank circuit breaks down (0% chose this)

3-11-08

One result of a slight mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and the antenna would be:

A.
smaller DC current drain (0% chose this)
B.
lower modulation percentage (0% chose this)
C.
reduced antenna radiation (0% chose this)
D.
radiated key-clicks (0% chose this)

3-11-09

An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does not:

A.
become over modulated (0% chose this)
B.
generate key-clicks (0% chose this)
C.
drift in frequency (0% chose this)
D.
cause undue distortion (0% chose this)

3-11-10

The input power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the output is 125 watts. What has happened to the remaining power?

A.
It has been dissipated as heat loss (0% chose this)
B.
It has been used to provide greater efficiency (0% chose this)
C.
It has been used to provide negative feedback (0% chose this)
D.
It has been used to provide positive feedback (0% chose this)

3-11-11

The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier:

A.
is lost in the feed line (0% chose this)
B.
appears as heat dissipation (0% chose this)
C.
is due to oscillating (0% chose this)
D.
radiates from the antenna (0% chose this)

3-12-01

What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?

A.
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
B.
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
D.
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)

3-12-02

What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with too much speech processing?

A.
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
B.
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
D.
It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)

3-12-03

What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna transmission line during one RF cycle, at the crest of the modulation envelope?

A.
Peak output power (0% chose this)
B.
Peak envelope power (0% chose this)
C.
Average radio-frequency power (0% chose this)
D.
Peak transmitter power (0% chose this)

3-12-04

What is the usual bandwidth of a singlesideband amateur signal?

A.
1 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
2 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
Between 3 and 6 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
Between 2 and 3 kHz (0% chose this)

3-12-05

In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals to the mixer?

A.
IF amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
Filter (0% chose this)
C.
RF amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
Carrier oscillator (0% chose this)

3-12-06

What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband phone transmission?

A.
More power can be put into the sidebands (0% chose this)
B.
Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content (0% chose this)
C.
Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion (0% chose this)
D.
Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressedcarrier signal (0% chose this)

3-12-07

What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or double-sideband phone transmitter?

A.
It becomes louder with no other effects (0% chose this)
B.
It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response (0% chose this)
C.
It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio (0% chose this)
D.
It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth (0% chose this)

3-12-08

How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone transmitter?

A.
For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
B.
For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
C.
For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks (0% chose this)
D.
For a dip in plate current (0% chose this)

3-12-09

The purpose of a balanced modulator in an SSB transmitter is to:

A.
make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are 180o out of phase (0% chose this)
B.
ensure that the percentage of modulation is kept constant (0% chose this)
C.
make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are in phase (0% chose this)
D.
suppress the carrier and pass on the two sidebands (0% chose this)

3-12-10

In a SSB transmission, the carrier is:

A.
transmitted with one sideband (0% chose this)
B.
reinserted at the receiver (0% chose this)
C.
inserted at the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
of no use at the receiver (0% chose this)

3-12-11

The automatic level control (ALC) in a SSB transmitter:

A.
eliminates the transmitter distortion (0% chose this)
B.
controls the peak audio input so that the final amplifier is not overdriven (0% chose this)
C.
increases the occupied bandwidth (0% chose this)
D.
reduces the system noise (0% chose this)

3-13-01

What may happen if an FM transmitter is operated with the microphone gain or deviation control set too high?

A.
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
B.
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)
D.
It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)

3-13-02

What may your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver do if you shout into its microphone?

A.
It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
B.
It may cause digital interference to computer equipment (0% chose this)
C.
It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band (0% chose this)

3-13-03

What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver is overdeviating?

A.
Talk louder into the microphone (0% chose this)
B.
Let the transceiver cool off (0% chose this)
C.
Change to a higher power level (0% chose this)
D.
Talk farther away from the microphone (0% chose this)

3-13-04

What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work?

A.
A frequency-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
B.
An amplitude-modulated carrier (0% chose this)
C.
An unmodulated carrier (0% chose this)
D.
A phase-modulated carrier (0% chose this)

3-13-05

Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications?

A.
It has high-fidelity audio which can be understood even when the signal is somewhat weak (0% chose this)
B.
The carrier is not detectable (0% chose this)
C.
It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals (0% chose this)
D.
Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes (0% chose this)

3-13-06

What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal?

A.
Between 10 and 20 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
Less than 5 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
Between 5 and 10 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
Greater than 20 kHz (0% chose this)

3-13-07

What is the result of overdeviation in an FM transmitter?

A.
Out-of-channel emissions (0% chose this)
B.
Increased transmitter power (0% chose this)
C.
Increased transmitter range (0% chose this)
D.
Poor carrier suppression (0% chose this)

3-13-08

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?

A.
Multiplex modulation (0% chose this)
B.
Amplitude modulation (0% chose this)
C.
Pulse modulation (0% chose this)
D.
Phase modulation (0% chose this)

3-13-09

Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz?

A.
The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low (0% chose this)
B.
Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels (0% chose this)
C.
The frequency stability would not be adequate (0% chose this)
D.
The bandwidth would exceed limits in the Regulations (0% chose this)

3-13-10

You are transmitting FM on the 2 metre band. Several stations advise you that your transmission is distorted. A quick check with a frequency counter tells you that the transmitter is on the proper frequency. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the distortion?

A.
The frequency deviation of your transmitter is set too high (0% chose this)
B.
The power supply output voltage is low (0% chose this)
C.
The repeater is reversing your sidebands (0% chose this)
D.
The frequency counter is giving an incorrect reading and you are indeed off frequency (0% chose this)

3-13-11

FM receivers perform in an unusual manner when two or more stations are present. The loudest signal, even though it is only two or three times as loud as the other signals, will be the only transmission demodulated. This is called:

A.
attach effect (0% chose this)
B.
interference effect (0% chose this)
C.
surrender effect (0% chose this)
D.
capture effect (0% chose this)

3-14-01

What do many amateurs use to help form good Morse code characters?

A.
An electronic keyer (0% chose this)
B.
A key-operated on/off switch (0% chose this)
C.
A notch filter (0% chose this)
D.
A DTMF keypad (0% chose this)

3-14-02

Where would you connect a microphone for voice operation?

A.
To a transceiver (0% chose this)
B.
To a power supply (0% chose this)
C.
To an antenna switch (0% chose this)
D.
To an antenna (0% chose this)

3-14-03

What would you connect to a transceiver for voice operation?

A.
A receiver audio filter (0% chose this)
B.
A terminal-voice controller (0% chose this)
C.
A microphone (0% chose this)
D.
A splatter filter (0% chose this)

3-14-04

Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use?

A.
Because it absorbs static electricity (0% chose this)
B.
Because it stores radio waves (0% chose this)
C.
Because it changes RF energy into heat (0% chose this)
D.
Because it stores electric current (0% chose this)

3-14-05

What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its microphone?

A.
VXO (0% chose this)
B.
VCO (0% chose this)
C.
VFO (0% chose this)
D.
VOX (0% chose this)

3-14-06

What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a singlesideband phone transmitter?

A.
It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver (0% chose this)
B.
It reduces average transmitter power requirements (0% chose this)
C.
It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone (0% chose this)
D.
It improves voice frequency fidelity (0% chose this)

3-14-07

If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a speech processor do to the transmitter's power?

A.
It will add nothing to the output PEP (0% chose this)
B.
It will increase the output PEP (0% chose this)
C.
It will decrease the peak power output (0% chose this)
D.
It will decrease the average power output (0% chose this)

3-14-08

When switching from receive to transmit:

A.
the receiver should be muted (0% chose this)
B.
the transmit oscillator should be turned off (0% chose this)
C.
the receiving antenna should be connected (0% chose this)
D.
the power supply should be off (0% chose this)

3-14-09

A switching system to enable the use of one antenna for a transmitter and receiver should also:

A.
ground the antenna on receive (0% chose this)
B.
disable the unit not being used (0% chose this)
C.
switch between meters (0% chose this)
D.
disconnect the antenna tuner (0% chose this)

3-14-10

An antenna changeover switch in a transmitter-receiver combination is necessary:

A.
so that one antenna can be used for transmitter and receiver (0% chose this)
B.
to change antennas for operation on other frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
to prevent RF currents entering the receiver circuits (0% chose this)
D.
to allow more than one transmitter to be used (0% chose this)

3-14-11

Which of the following components could be used as a dynamic microphone?

A.
crystal earpiece (0% chose this)
B.
resistor (0% chose this)
C.
loudspeaker (0% chose this)
D.
capacitor (0% chose this)

3-15-01

What does "connected" mean in a packet-radio link?

A.
A telephone link is working between two stations (0% chose this)
B.
A message has reached an amateur station for local delivery (0% chose this)
C.
A transmitting and receiving station are using a digipeater, so no other contacts can take place until they are finished (0% chose this)
D.
A transmitting station is sending data to only one receiving station; it replies that the data is being received correctly (0% chose this)

3-15-02

What does "monitoring" mean on a packet-radio frequency?

A.
A member of the Amateur Auxiliary is copying all messages (0% chose this)
B.
A receiving station is displaying messages that may not be sent to it, and is not replying to any message (0% chose this)
C.
A receiving station is displaying all messages sent to it, and replying that the messages are being received correctly (0% chose this)
D.
Industry Canada is monitoring all messages (0% chose this)

3-15-03

What is a digipeater?

A.
A repeater built using only digital electronics parts (0% chose this)
B.
A repeater that changes audio signals to digital data (0% chose this)
C.
A packet-radio station that retransmits only data that is marked to be retransmitted (0% chose this)
D.
A packet-radio station that retransmits any data that it receives (0% chose this)

3-15-04

What does "network" mean in packet radio?

A.
A way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent over long distances (0% chose this)
B.
A way of connecting terminal-node controllers by telephone so data can be sent over long distances (0% chose this)
C.
The connections on terminal-node controllers (0% chose this)
D.
The programming in a terminal-node controller that rejects other callers if a station is already connected (0% chose this)

3-15-05

In packet-radio operation, what equipment connects to a terminal-node controller?

A.
A transceiver and a modem (0% chose this)
B.
A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a transceiver (0% chose this)
C.
A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
A transceiver and a terminal or computer system (0% chose this)

3-15-06

How would you modulate a 2 meter FM transceiver to produce packet-radio emissions?

A.
Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver's microphone input (0% chose this)
B.
Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the transceiver's carrier wave (0% chose this)
C.
Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's microphone input (0% chose this)
D.
Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver's microphone input (0% chose this)

3-15-07

When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (center to center) to minimize interference?

A.
Approximately 6 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
Approximately 3 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
250 to 500 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
60 Hz (0% chose this)

3-15-08

Digital transmissions use signals called _______ to transmit the states 1 and 0.

A.
packet and AMTOR (0% chose this)
B.
baudot and ASCII (0% chose this)
C.
mark and space (0% chose this)
D.
dot and dash (0% chose this)

3-15-09

Which of the following terms does not apply to packet?

A.
ASCII (0% chose this)
B.
Baudot (0% chose this)
C.
Terminal-Node Controller (TNC) (0% chose this)
D.
AX.25 (0% chose this)

3-15-10

When using AMTOR transmissions, there are two modes that may be utilized. Mode A uses Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) protocol and is normally used:

A.
at all times. Mode B is for test purposes only (0% chose this)
B.
only when communications have been completed (0% chose this)
C.
for communications after contact has been established (0% chose this)
D.
when making a general call (0% chose this)

3-15-11

What is the most common data rate used for VHF packet communications?

A.
300 baud (0% chose this)
B.
9600 baud (0% chose this)
C.
2400 baud (0% chose this)
D.
1200 baud (0% chose this)

3-16-01

How much voltage does a standard automobile battery usually supply ?

A.
About 240 volts (0% chose this)
B.
About 120 volts (0% chose this)
C.
About 12 volts (0% chose this)
D.
About 9 volts (0% chose this)

3-16-02

Which component has a positive and a negative side?

A.
A potentiometer (0% chose this)
B.
A fuse (0% chose this)
C.
A resistor (0% chose this)
D.
A battery (0% chose this)

3-16-03

A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a:

A.
low leakage cell (0% chose this)
B.
memory cell (0% chose this)
C.
storage cell (0% chose this)
D.
primary cell (0% chose this)

3-16-04

Which of the following is a source of EMF?

A.
germanium diode (0% chose this)
B.
lead acid battery (0% chose this)
C.
P channel FET (0% chose this)
D.
carbon resistor (0% chose this)

3-16-05

An important difference between a conventional flashlight battery and a lead acid battery is that only the lead acid battery:

A.
has two terminals (0% chose this)
B.
can be repeatedly recharged (0% chose this)
C.
can be completely discharged (0% chose this)
D.
contains an electrolyte (0% chose this)

3-16-06

A dry cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volt. When supplying a great deal of current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volt. This is due to the cell's:

A.
electrolyte becoming dry (0% chose this)
B.
internal resistance (0% chose this)
C.
current capacity (0% chose this)
D.
voltage capacity (0% chose this)

3-16-07

The most common primary cell in use today is the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This cell can be recharged:

A.
never (0% chose this)
B.
twice (0% chose this)
C.
many times (0% chose this)
D.
once (0% chose this)

3-16-08

All storage batteries have discharge limits, and nickel-cadmium, the type most used in hand-held portables, should not be discharged to less than:

A.
0.5 volt per cell (0% chose this)
B.
1.5 volt per cell (0% chose this)
C.
0.2 volt per cell (0% chose this)
D.
1.0 volt per cell (0% chose this)

3-16-09

To increase the current capacity of a cell, several cells should be connected in:

A.
parallel (0% chose this)
B.
series (0% chose this)
C.
parallel resonant (0% chose this)
D.
series resonant (0% chose this)

3-16-10

To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in:

A.
parallel (0% chose this)
B.
series-parallel (0% chose this)
C.
resonance (0% chose this)
D.
series (0% chose this)

3-16-11

A nickel-cadmium battery should never be:

A.
short-circuited (0% chose this)
B.
recharged (0% chose this)
C.
left disconnected (0% chose this)
D.
left overnight at room temperature (0% chose this)

3-17-01

If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first?

A.
The power supply (0% chose this)
B.
The speaker (0% chose this)
C.
The microphone (0% chose this)
D.
The SWR meter (0% chose this)

3-17-02

What device converts household current to 12 VDC?

A.
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
B.
A power supply (0% chose this)
C.
An RS-232 interface (0% chose this)
D.
A catalytic converter (0% chose this)

3-17-03

Which of these usually needs a heavyduty power supply?

A.
An antenna switch (0% chose this)
B.
A receiver (0% chose this)
C.
A transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
An SWR meter (0% chose this)

3-17-04

What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an AC-powered transmitter?

A.
A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply (0% chose this)
B.
Using an antenna which is the wrong length (0% chose this)
C.
Energy from another transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Bad design of the transmitter's RF power output circuit (0% chose this)

3-17-05

A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts at 5 amperes. The power transformer should be rated higher than:

A.
17 watts (0% chose this)
B.
2.4 watts (0% chose this)
C.
6 watts (0% chose this)
D.
60 watts (0% chose this)

3-17-06

The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it:

A.
has a high resistance to AC but not to DC (0% chose this)
B.
allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode (0% chose this)
C.
has a high resistance to DC but not to AC (0% chose this)
D.
allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode (0% chose this)

3-17-07

To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could use a:

A.
transformer (0% chose this)
B.
capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
diode (0% chose this)
D.
resistor (0% chose this)

3-17-08

Power-line voltages have been made standard over the years and the voltages generally supplied to homes are approximately:

A.
120 and 240 volts (0% chose this)
B.
110 and 220 volts (0% chose this)
C.
100 and 200 volts (0% chose this)
D.
130 and 260 volts (0% chose this)

3-17-09

So-called "transformerless" power supplies are used in some applications (notably tube-type radios and TV receivers). When working on such equipment, one should be very careful because:

A.
DC circuits are negative relative to the chassis (0% chose this)
B.
chassis connections are grounded by the centre pin of the power source's plug (0% chose this)
C.
the load across the power supply is variable (0% chose this)
D.
one side of the line cord is connected to the chassis (0% chose this)

3-17-10

If household voltages are consistently high or low at your location, this can be corrected by the use of:

A.
a full-wave bridge rectifier (0% chose this)
B.
an autotransformer (0% chose this)
C.
a variable voltmeter (0% chose this)
D.
a proper load resistance (0% chose this)

3-17-11

You have a very loud low- frequency hum appearing on your transmission. In what part of the transmitter would you first look for the trouble?

A.
the power supply (0% chose this)
B.
the variable-frequency oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
the driver circuit (0% chose this)
D.
the power amplifier circuit (0% chose this)

3-18-01

How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home?

A.
Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line (0% chose this)
B.
Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line (0% chose this)
C.
Put a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station (0% chose this)
D.
Put fuses in the main power line (0% chose this)

3-18-02

How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car?

A.
Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it (0% chose this)
B.
Turn the radio off when you are not using it (0% chose this)
C.
Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it (0% chose this)
D.
Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio (0% chose this)

3-18-03

Why would you use a key- operated on/off switch in the main power line of your station?

A.
For safety, in case the main fuses fail (0% chose this)
B.
To keep the power company from turning off your electricity during an emergency (0% chose this)
C.
For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an emergency (0% chose this)
D.
To keep unauthorized persons from using your station (0% chose this)

3-18-04

Why would there be a switch in a highvoltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened?

A.
To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages (0% chose this)
B.
To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet (0% chose this)
C.
To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet (0% chose this)
D.
To turn the power supply off when it is not being used (0% chose this)

3-18-05

How little electrical current flowing through the human body can be fatal?

A.
Approximately 10 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
More than 20 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
Current flow through the human body is never fatal (0% chose this)
D.
As little as 1/10 of an ampere (0% chose this)

3-18-06

Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current?

A.
The heart (0% chose this)
B.
The brain (0% chose this)
C.
The liver (0% chose this)
D.
The lungs (0% chose this)

3-18-07

What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans?

A.
100 volts (0% chose this)
B.
1000 volts (0% chose this)
C.
2000 volts (0% chose this)
D.
30 volts (0% chose this)

3-18-08

What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage?

A.
Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help (0% chose this)
B.
Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Turn off the power, call for emergency help and give CPR if needed (0% chose this)
D.
Run from the area so you won't be burned too (0% chose this)

3-18-09

What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high voltage source?

A.
Turn off the high voltage switch beforere moving the person from contact with the source (0% chose this)
B.
Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area (0% chose this)
C.
Call an electrician (0% chose this)
D.
Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg (0% chose this)

3-18-10

Before checking a fault in a mains operated power supply unit, it would be safest to First:

A.
turn off the power and remove power plug (0% chose this)
B.
short out leads of filter capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
check action of capacitor bleeder resistance (0% chose this)
D.
remove and check fuse from power supply (0% chose this)

3-18-11

Fault finding in a power supply of an amateur transmitter while the supply is operating is not a recommended technique because of the risk of:

A.
electric shock (0% chose this)
B.
damaging the transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
overmodulation (0% chose this)
D.
blowing the fuse (0% chose this)

3-19-01

For best protection from electrical shock, what should be grounded in an amateur station?

A.
The antenna feed line (0% chose this)
B.
All station equipment (0% chose this)
C.
The AC power line (0% chose this)
D.
The power supply primary (0% chose this)

3-19-02

If a separate ground system is not possible for your amateur station, an alternative indoor grounding point could be:

A.
a metallic cold water pipe (0% chose this)
B.
a plastic cold water pipe (0% chose this)
C.
a window screen (0% chose this)
D.
a metallic natural gas pipe (0% chose this)

3-19-03

To protect you against electrical shock, the chassis of each piece of your station equipment should be connected to:

A.
a good ground connection (0% chose this)
B.
a dummy load (0% chose this)
C.
insulated shock mounts (0% chose this)
D.
the antenna (0% chose this)

3-19-04

Which of these materials is best for a ground rod driven into the earth?

A.
Hard plastic (0% chose this)
B.
Iron or steel (0% chose this)
C.
Fiberglass (0% chose this)
D.
Copper-clad steel (0% chose this)

3-19-06

Where should the green wire in a threewire AC line cord be connected in a power supply?

A.
To the white wire (0% chose this)
B.
To the "hot" side of the power switch (0% chose this)
C.
To the chassis (0% chose this)
D.
To the fuse (0% chose this)

3-19-07

If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 10.05 metres (33 feet) down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you touch the front panel of your HF transceiver?

A.
Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy to take an easier path out of the transceiver through you (0% chose this)
B.
Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working to start the cooling fan (0% chose this)
C.
Because the ground wire is a resonant length on several HF bands and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection (0% chose this)
D.
Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist earth (0% chose this)

3-19-08

What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur station?

A.
Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects to your station (0% chose this)
B.
Drive the ground rod at least 420 cm (14 feet) into the ground (0% chose this)
C.
Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible (0% chose this)
D.
Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity (0% chose this)

3-19-09

Which statement about station grounding is true?

A.
A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment (0% chose this)
B.
If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground (0% chose this)
C.
RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire (0% chose this)
D.
The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high- impedance conductors (0% chose this)

3-19-10

On mains operated power supplies, the ground wire should be connected to the metal chassis of the power supply. This ensures, in case there is a fault in the power supply, that the chassis:

A.
does not become conductive to prevent electric shock (0% chose this)
B.
becomes conductive to prevent electric shock (0% chose this)
C.
develops a high voltage compared to the ground (0% chose this)
D.
does not develop a high voltage with respect to the ground (0% chose this)

3-19-11

The purpose of using a three- wire power cord and plug on amateur radio equipment is to:

A.
prevent the plug from being reversed in the wall outlet (0% chose this)
B.
prevent the chassis from becoming live in case of an internal short to the chassis (0% chose this)
C.
prevent short circuits (0% chose this)
D.
make it inconvenient to use (0% chose this)

3-20-01

Why should you ground all antenna and rotator cables when your amateur station is not in use?

A.
To lock the antenna system in one position (0% chose this)
B.
To protect the station and building from lightning damage (0% chose this)
C.
To avoid radio frequency interference (0% chose this)
D.
To make sure everything will stay in place (0% chose this)

3-20-02

How can an antenna system be protected from lightning damage?

A.
Install a balun at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
B.
Install an RF choke in the antenna feed line (0% chose this)
C.
Install a fuse in the antenna feed line (0% chose this)
D.
Ground all antennas when they are not in use (0% chose this)

3-20-03

How can amateur station equipment best be protected from lightning damage?

A.
Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna cables (0% chose this)
B.
Use heavy insulation on the wiring (0% chose this)
C.
Never turn off the equipment (0% chose this)
D.
Disconnect the ground system from all radios (0% chose this)

3-20-04

What equipment should be worn for working on an antenna tower?

A.
A reflective vest of approved color (0% chose this)
B.
Approved equipment in accordance with provincial safety standards concerning climbing (0% chose this)
C.
A flashing red, yellow or white light (0% chose this)
D.
A grounding chain (0% chose this)

3-20-05

Why should you wear a safety belt if you are working on an antenna tower?

A.
To safely bring any tools you might use up and down the tower (0% chose this)
B.
To keep the tower from becoming unbalanced while you are working (0% chose this)
C.
To prevent you from accidentally falling (0% chose this)
D.
To safely hold your tools so they don't fall and injure someone on the ground (0% chose this)

3-20-06

For safety, how high should you place a horizontal wire antenna?

A.
Above high-voltage electrical lines (0% chose this)
B.
Just high enough so you can easily reach it for adjustments or repairs (0% chose this)
C.
High enough so that no one can touch any part of it from the ground (0% chose this)
D.
As close to the ground as possible (0% chose this)

3-20-07

Why should you wear a hard hat if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?

A.
So you won't be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall (0% chose this)
B.
To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing (0% chose this)
C.
So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the tower and will stay away (0% chose this)
D.
To protect your head from something dropped from the tower (0% chose this)

3-20-08

Why should your outside antennas be high enough so that no one can touch them while you are transmitting?

A.
Touching the antenna might reflect the signal back to the transmitter and cause damage (0% chose this)
B.
Touching the antenna might radiate harmonics (0% chose this)
C.
Touching the antenna might cause RF burns (0% chose this)
D.
Touching the antenna might cause television interference (0% chose this)

3-20-09

Why should you make sure that no one can touch an open-wire feed line while you are transmitting with it?

A.
Because contact might break the feed line (0% chose this)
B.
Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person (0% chose this)
C.
Because contact might cause spurious emissions (0% chose this)
D.
Because contact might cause a short circuit and damage the transmitter (0% chose this)

3-20-10

What safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna?

A.
Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line (0% chose this)
B.
Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded (0% chose this)
C.
Inform your neighbors so they are aware of your intentions (0% chose this)
D.
Turn off the main power switch in your house (0% chose this)

3-20-11

What precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

A.
It should be painted so people or animals do not accidentally run into it (0% chose this)
B.
It should not be installed in a wet area (0% chose this)
C.
It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it (0% chose this)
D.
It should not be installed higher than you can reach (0% chose this)

3-21-01

What should you do for safety when operating at 1270 MHz?

A.
Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied (0% chose this)
B.
Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
C.
Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test (0% chose this)
D.
Never use a horizontally polarized antenna (0% chose this)

3-21-02

What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna?

A.
Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction (0% chose this)
B.
Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting (0% chose this)
C.
Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point (0% chose this)
D.
Make sure that RF field screens are in place (0% chose this)

3-21-03

What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier?

A.
Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected (0% chose this)
B.
Make sure the antenna feed line is properly grounded (0% chose this)
C.
Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on (0% chose this)
D.
Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna feed line (0% chose this)

3-21-04

Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting?

A.
To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction (0% chose this)
B.
To reduce your exposure to the radiofrequency energy (0% chose this)
C.
To keep static charges from building up (0% chose this)
D.
To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions (0% chose this)

3-21-05

How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting?

A.
Pointed towards the station you are contacting (0% chose this)
B.
Pointed away from the station you are contacting (0% chose this)
C.
Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground (0% chose this)
D.
Away from your head and away from others (0% chose this)

3-21-06

How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue?

A.
It causes radiation poisoning (0% chose this)
B.
It paralyzes the tissue (0% chose this)
C.
It produces genetic changes in the tissue (0% chose this)
D.
It heats the tissue (0% chose this)

3-21-07

Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation?

A.
Heart (0% chose this)
B.
Eyes (0% chose this)
C.
Liver (0% chose this)
D.
Hands (0% chose this)

3-21-08

Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue?

A.
It causes radiation poisoning (0% chose this)
B.
It causes blood flow to stop (0% chose this)
C.
It produces genetic changes in the tissue (0% chose this)
D.
It heats the tissue (0% chose this)

3-21-09

If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them?

A.
Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects (0% chose this)
B.
Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation (0% chose this)
C.
Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating (0% chose this)
D.
Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize feed-line length (0% chose this)

3-21-10

Why should directional high- gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures?

A.
So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures (0% chose this)
B.
So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm (0% chose this)
C.
So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy (0% chose this)
D.
So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves (0% chose this)

3-21-11

For best RF safety, where should the ends and center of a dipole antenna be located?

A.
As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground (0% chose this)
C.
As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder (0% chose this)

4-01-01

A circuit designed to increase the level of its input signal is called:

A.
an amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
a modulator (0% chose this)
C.
an oscillator (0% chose this)
D.
a receiver (0% chose this)

4-01-02

If an amplifier becomes non- linear, the output signal would:

A.
become distorted (0% chose this)
B.
be saturated (0% chose this)
C.
cause oscillations (0% chose this)
D.
overload the power supply (0% chose this)

4-01-03

To increase the level of very weak radio signals from an antenna, you would use:

A.
an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
an audio oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
an audio amplifier (0% chose this)

4-01-04

To increase the level of very weak signals from a microphone you would use:

A.
an RF oscillator (0% chose this)
B.
an RF amplifier (0% chose this)
C.
an audio amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
an audio oscillator (0% chose this)

4-01-05

The range of frequencies to be amplified by a speech amplifier is typically:

A.
3 to 300 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
300 to 1000 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
40 to 40 000 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
300 to 3400 Hz (0% chose this)

4-01-06

Which of the following is not amplified by an amplifier?

A.
current (0% chose this)
B.
resistance (0% chose this)
C.
power (0% chose this)
D.
voltage (0% chose this)

4-01-07

The increase in signal level by an amplifier is called:

A.
attenuation (0% chose this)
B.
amplitude (0% chose this)
C.
modulation (0% chose this)
D.
gain (0% chose this)

4-01-08

A device with gain has the property of:

A.
attenuation (0% chose this)
B.
oscillation (0% chose this)
C.
modulation (0% chose this)
D.
amplification (0% chose this)

4-01-09

A device labelled "Gain = 10 dB" is likely to be an:

A.
attenuator (0% chose this)
B.
oscillator (0% chose this)
C.
audio fader (0% chose this)
D.
amplifier (0% chose this)

4-01-10

Amplifiers can amplify:

A.
current, power, or inductance (0% chose this)
B.
voltage, current, or power (0% chose this)
C.
voltage, power, or inductance (0% chose this)
D.
voltage, current, or inductance (0% chose this)

4-01-11

Which of the following is not a property of an amplifier?

A.
gain (0% chose this)
B.
linearity (0% chose this)
C.
distortion (0% chose this)
D.
loss (0% chose this)

4-02-01

Zener diodes are used as:

A.
current regulators (0% chose this)
B.
voltage regulators (0% chose this)
C.
RF detectors (0% chose this)
D.
AF detectors (0% chose this)

4-02-02

One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to as:

A.
regeneration (0% chose this)
B.
ionization (0% chose this)
C.
biasing (0% chose this)
D.
demodulation (0% chose this)

4-02-03

The primary purpose of a Zener diode is to:

A.
provide a voltage phase shift (0% chose this)
B.
regulate or maintain a constant voltage (0% chose this)
C.
to boost the power supply voltage (0% chose this)
D.
provide a path through which current can flow (0% chose this)

4-02-04

The action of changing alternating current to direct current is called:

A.
amplification (0% chose this)
B.
rectification (0% chose this)
C.
transformation (0% chose this)
D.
modulation (0% chose this)

4-02-05

The electrodes of a semi- conductor diode are known as:

A.
gate and source (0% chose this)
B.
anode and cathode (0% chose this)
C.
collector and base (0% chose this)
D.
cathode and drain (0% chose this)

4-02-06

If alternating current is applied to the anode of a diode, what would you expect to see at the cathode?

A.
No signal (0% chose this)
B.
Steady direct current (0% chose this)
C.
Pulsating direct current (0% chose this)
D.
Pulsating alternating current (0% chose this)

4-02-07

In a semi-conductor diode, electrons flow from:

A.
anode to cathode (0% chose this)
B.
cathode to grid (0% chose this)
C.
grid to anode (0% chose this)
D.
cathode to anode (0% chose this)

4-02-08

What semi-conductor device glows red, yellow, or green, depending upon its chemical composition?

A.
A light-emitting diode (0% chose this)
B.
A fluorescent bulb (0% chose this)
C.
A neon bulb (0% chose this)
D.
A vacuum diode (0% chose this)

4-02-09

Voltage regulation is the principal application of the:

A.
junction diode (0% chose this)
B.
light-emitting diode (0% chose this)
C.
vacuum diode (0% chose this)
D.
Zener diode (0% chose this)

4-02-10

In order for a diode to conduct, it must be:

A.
close coupled (0% chose this)
B.
forward-biased (0% chose this)
C.
enhanced (0% chose this)
D.
reverse-biased (0% chose this)

4-03-01

Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages?

A.
A variable resistor (0% chose this)
B.
An electrolytic capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
A multiple-cell battery (0% chose this)
D.
A PNP transistor (0% chose this)

4-03-02

The basic semi-conductor amplifying device is the:

A.
tube (0% chose this)
B.
P-N junction (0% chose this)
C.
transistor (0% chose this)
D.
diode (0% chose this)

4-03-03

The three leads from a PNP transistor are named:

A.
drain, base and source (0% chose this)
B.
collector, emitter and base (0% chose this)
C.
collector, source and drain (0% chose this)
D.
gate, source and drain (0% chose this)

4-03-04

If a low level signal is placed at the input to a transistor, a higher level of signal is produced at the output lead. This effect is know as:

A.
detection (0% chose this)
B.
modulation (0% chose this)
C.
rectification (0% chose this)
D.
amplification (0% chose this)

4-03-05

Bipolar transistors usually have:

A.
2 leads (0% chose this)
B.
3 leads (0% chose this)
C.
1 lead (0% chose this)
D.
4 leads (0% chose this)

4-03-06

A semi-conductor is described as a "general purpose audio NPN device". This would be:

A.
a bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
B.
a silicon diode (0% chose this)
C.
a triode (0% chose this)
D.
an audio detector (0% chose this)

4-03-07

The two basic types of bipolar transistors are:

A.
diode and triode types (0% chose this)
B.
NPN and PNP types (0% chose this)
C.
varicap and zener types (0% chose this)
D.
P and N channel types (0% chose this)

4-03-08

A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:

A.
excessive heat (0% chose this)
B.
excessive light (0% chose this)
C.
saturation (0% chose this)
D.
cut-off (0% chose this)

4-03-09

In a bipolar transistor, the _______ compares closest to the control grid of a triode vacuum tube.

A.
emitter (0% chose this)
B.
base (0% chose this)
C.
source (0% chose this)
D.
collector (0% chose this)

4-03-10

In a bipolar transistor, the _______ compares closest to the plate of a triode vacuum tube.

A.
gate (0% chose this)
B.
emitter (0% chose this)
C.
collector (0% chose this)
D.
base (0% chose this)

4-03-11

In a bipolar transistor, the _______ compares closest to the cathode of a triode vacuum tube.

A.
collector (0% chose this)
B.
base (0% chose this)
C.
drain (0% chose this)
D.
emitter (0% chose this)

4-04-01

The two basic types of field effect transistors (FET) are:

A.
NPN and PNP (0% chose this)
B.
germanium and silicon (0% chose this)
C.
inductive and capacitive (0% chose this)
D.
N and P channel (0% chose this)

4-04-02

A semi-conductor having its leads labeled gate, drain, and source is best described as a:

A.
gated transistor (0% chose this)
B.
field-effect transistor (0% chose this)
C.
bipolar transistor (0% chose this)
D.
silicon diode (0% chose this)

4-04-03

In a field effect transistor, the _______ is the terminal that controls the conductance of the channel.

A.
gate (0% chose this)
B.
drain (0% chose this)
C.
source (0% chose this)
D.
collector (0% chose this)

4-04-04

In a field effect transistor, the _______ is the terminal where the charge carriers enter the channel.

A.
source (0% chose this)
B.
gate (0% chose this)
C.
drain (0% chose this)
D.
emitter (0% chose this)

4-04-05

In a field effect transistor, the _______ is the terminal where the charge carriers leave the channel.

A.
collector (0% chose this)
B.
source (0% chose this)
C.
drain (0% chose this)
D.
gate (0% chose this)

4-04-06

Which semi-conductor device has characteristics most similar to a triode vacuum tube?

A.
Junction diode (0% chose this)
B.
Zener diode (0% chose this)
C.
Field effect transistor (0% chose this)
D.
Bipolar transistor (0% chose this)

4-04-07

The control element in the field effect transistor is the:

A.
gate (0% chose this)
B.
source (0% chose this)
C.
drain (0% chose this)
D.
base (0% chose this)

4-04-08

If you wish to reduce the current flowing in a field effect transistor, you could:

A.
increase the reverse bias voltage (0% chose this)
B.
decrease the reverse bias voltage (0% chose this)
C.
increase the forward bias voltage (0% chose this)
D.
increase the forward bias gain (0% chose this)

4-04-09

The source of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar transistor.

A.
base (0% chose this)
B.
emitter (0% chose this)
C.
drain (0% chose this)
D.
collector (0% chose this)

4-04-10

The drain of a field effect transistor corresponds to the _______ of a bipolar transistor.

A.
base (0% chose this)
B.
collector (0% chose this)
C.
source (0% chose this)
D.
emitter (0% chose this)

4-04-11

Which two elements in a field effect transistor exhibit fairly similar characteristics?

A.
Source and gate (0% chose this)
B.
Gate and drain (0% chose this)
C.
Source and base (0% chose this)
D.
Source and drain (0% chose this)

4-05-01

What is one reason a triode vacuum tube might be used instead of a transistor in a circuit?

A.
It uses less current (0% chose this)
B.
It may be able to handle higher power (0% chose this)
C.
It is much smaller (0% chose this)
D.
It uses lower voltages (0% chose this)

4-05-02

Which component can amplify a small signal but must use high voltages?

A.
A vacuum tube (0% chose this)
B.
A transistor (0% chose this)
C.
An electrolytic capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
A multiple-cell battery (0% chose this)

4-05-03

A feature common to tubes and transistors is that both:

A.
have electrons drifting through a vacuum (0% chose this)
B.
can amplify signals (0% chose this)
C.
convert electrical energy to radio waves (0% chose this)
D.
use heat to cause electron movement (0% chose this)

4-05-04

In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is operated with the highest positive potential is the _______.

A.
filament (heater) (0% chose this)
B.
plate (0% chose this)
C.
cathode (0% chose this)
D.
grid (0% chose this)

4-05-05

In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is usually a cylinder of wire mesh is the _______.

A.
filament (heater) (0% chose this)
B.
grid (0% chose this)
C.
cathode (0% chose this)
D.
plate (0% chose this)

4-05-06

In a vacuum tube, the element that is furthest away from the plate is the _______.

A.
grid (0% chose this)
B.
emitter (0% chose this)
C.
cathode (0% chose this)
D.
filament (heater) (0% chose this)

4-05-07

In a vacuum tube, the electrode that emits electrons is the _______.

A.
cathode (0% chose this)
B.
grid (0% chose this)
C.
collector (0% chose this)
D.
plate (0% chose this)

4-05-08

What is inside the envelope of a triode tube?

A.
argon (0% chose this)
B.
a vacuum (0% chose this)
C.
air (0% chose this)
D.
neon (0% chose this)

4-05-09

How many grids are there in a triode vacuum tube?

A.
two (0% chose this)
B.
three (0% chose this)
C.
three plus a filament (0% chose this)
D.
one (0% chose this)

4-05-10

If you do not wish to have current flowing in the grid circuit of a vacuum tube, the grid should be:

A.
positive with respect to the anode (0% chose this)
B.
negative with respect to the cathode (0% chose this)
C.
positive with respect to both cathode and anode (0% chose this)
D.
positive with respect to the cathode (0% chose this)

4-05-11

The negative DC control voltage applied to the control grid of a vacuum tube is called:

A.
suppression voltage (0% chose this)
B.
bias voltage (0% chose this)
C.
repulsion voltage (0% chose this)
D.
excitation voltage (0% chose this)

4-06-01

How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating?

A.
By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors (0% chose this)
B.
By reading the resistor's color code (0% chose this)
C.
By reading its Baudot code (0% chose this)
D.
By using a voltmeter (0% chose this)

4-06-02

What do the first three-color bands on a resistor indicate?

A.
The resistance material (0% chose this)
B.
The power rating in watts (0% chose this)
C.
The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this)
D.
The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this)

4-06-03

What does the fourth color band on a resistor mean?

A.
The value of the resistor in ohms (0% chose this)
B.
The power rating in watts (0% chose this)
C.
The resistance material (0% chose this)
D.
The resistance tolerance in percent (0% chose this)

4-06-04

What are the possible values of a 100 ohm resistor with a 10% tolerance?

A.
90 to 110 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
90 to 100 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
10 to 100 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
80 to 120 ohms (0% chose this)

4-06-05

How do you find a resistor's value?

A.
By using the resistor's color code (0% chose this)
B.
By using a voltmeter (0% chose this)
C.
By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors (0% chose this)
D.
By using the Baudot code (0% chose this)

4-06-06

Which tolerance rating would a highquality resistor have?

A.
5% (0% chose this)
B.
10% (0% chose this)
C.
20% (0% chose this)
D.
0.1% (0% chose this)

4-06-07

Which tolerance rating would a lowquality resistor have?

A.
20% (0% chose this)
B.
0.1% (0% chose this)
C.
5% (0% chose this)
D.
10% (0% chose this)

4-06-08

If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen to the resistance?

A.
It will stay the same (0% chose this)
B.
It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating (0% chose this)
C.
It will become time dependent (0% chose this)
D.
It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade (0% chose this)

4-06-09

A gold band on a resistor indicates the tolerance is:

A.
20% (0% chose this)
B.
10% (0% chose this)
C.
5% (0% chose this)
D.
1% (0% chose this)

4-06-10

A resistor with a colour code of brown, black, and red, would have a value of:

A.
1000 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
100 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
10 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
10 000 ohms (0% chose this)

4-06-11

A resistor is marked with the colors red, violet and yellow. This resistor has a value of:

A.
274 (0% chose this)
B.
72 k (0% chose this)
C.
27 M (0% chose this)
D.
270 k (0% chose this)

5-01-01

If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of 3.525 MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz?

A.
35.25 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
3525 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
3 525 000 kHz (0% chose this)
D.
0.003525 kHz (0% chose this)

5-01-02

If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000 milliampere current, what reading would it show?

A.
3 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
0.003 ampere (0% chose this)
C.
0.3 ampere (0% chose this)
D.
3 000 000 amperes (0% chose this)

5-01-03

If a voltmeter marked in volts is used to measure a 3500 millivolt potential, what reading would it show?

A.
3.5 volts (0% chose this)
B.
0.35 volt (0% chose this)
C.
35 volts (0% chose this)
D.
350 volts (0% chose this)

5-01-04

How many microfarads is 1 000 000 picofarads?

A.
1 000 000 000 microfarads (0% chose this)
B.
1000 microfarads (0% chose this)
C.
1 microfarad (0% chose this)
D.
0.001 microfarad (0% chose this)

5-01-05

If you have a hand-held transceiver which puts out 500 milliwatts, how many watts would this be?

A.
5 (0% chose this)
B.
0.5 (0% chose this)
C.
50 (0% chose this)
D.
0.02 (0% chose this)

5-01-06

A kilohm is:

A.
0.1 ohm (0% chose this)
B.
0.001 ohm (0% chose this)
C.
10 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
1000 ohms (0% chose this)

5-01-07

6.6 kilovolts is equal to:

A.
6600 volts (0% chose this)
B.
660 volts (0% chose this)
C.
66 volts (0% chose this)
D.
66 000 volts (0% chose this)

5-01-08

A current of one quarter ampere may be written as:

A.
0.5 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
0.25 milliampere (0% chose this)
C.
250 microampere (0% chose this)
D.
250 milliamperes (0% chose this)

5-01-09

How many millivolts are equivalent to two volts?

A.
0.000002 (0% chose this)
B.
2 000 (0% chose this)
C.
2 000 000 (0% chose this)
D.
0.002 (0% chose this)

5-01-10

One megahertz is equal to:

A.
1 000 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
100 kHz (0% chose this)
C.
0.001 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
10 Hz (0% chose this)

5-01-11

An inductance of 10 000 microhenrys may be stated correctly as:

A.
100 millihenrys (0% chose this)
B.
10 henrys (0% chose this)
C.
1 000 henrys (0% chose this)
D.
10 millihenrys (0% chose this)

5-02-01

Name three good electrical conductors.

A.
Gold, silver, wood (0% chose this)
B.
Gold, silver, aluminum (0% chose this)
C.
Copper, aluminum, paper (0% chose this)
D.
Copper, gold, mica (0% chose this)

5-02-02

Name four good electrical insulators.

A.
Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon (0% chose this)
B.
Paper, glass, air, aluminum (0% chose this)
C.
Glass, air, plastic, porcelain (0% chose this)
D.
Glass, wood, copper, porcelain (0% chose this)

5-02-03

Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use?

A.
Their reactance makes them heat up (0% chose this)
B.
Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up (0% chose this)
C.
They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot (0% chose this)
D.
Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat (0% chose this)

5-02-04

What is the best conductor among the following materials?

A.
carbon (0% chose this)
B.
silicon (0% chose this)
C.
aluminium (0% chose this)
D.
copper (0% chose this)

5-02-05

The material listed, which will most readily allow an electric current to flow, is called?

A.
a conductor (0% chose this)
B.
an insulator (0% chose this)
C.
a resistor (0% chose this)
D.
a dielectric (0% chose this)

5-02-06

A length of metal is connected in a circuit and is found to conduct electricity very well. It would be best described as having a:

A.
high resistance (0% chose this)
B.
high wattage (0% chose this)
C.
low wattage (0% chose this)
D.
low resistance (0% chose this)

5-02-07

The letter "R" is the symbol for:

A.
impedance (0% chose this)
B.
resistance (0% chose this)
C.
reluctance (0% chose this)
D.
reactance (0% chose this)

5-02-08

The reciprocal of resistance is:

A.
conductance (0% chose this)
B.
reactance (0% chose this)
C.
reluctance (0% chose this)
D.
permeability (0% chose this)

5-02-09

Voltage drop means:

A.
voltage developed across the terminals of a component (0% chose this)
B.
any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage (0% chose this)
C.
difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer (0% chose this)
D.
the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished (0% chose this)

5-02-10

The resistance of a conductor changes with:

A.
voltage (0% chose this)
B.
temperature (0% chose this)
C.
current (0% chose this)
D.
humidity (0% chose this)

5-02-11

The most common material used to make a resistor is:

A.
carbon (0% chose this)
B.
gold (0% chose this)
C.
mica (0% chose this)
D.
lead (0% chose this)

5-03-01

What is the word used to describe how fast electrical energy is used?

A.
Current (0% chose this)
B.
Power (0% chose this)
C.
Voltage (0% chose this)
D.
Resistance (0% chose this)

5-03-02

If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and 100 watts, which one will use electrical energy the fastest?

A.
They will all be the same (0% chose this)
B.
The 40 watt bulb (0% chose this)
C.
The 100 watt bulb (0% chose this)
D.
The 60 watt bulb (0% chose this)

5-03-03

What is the basic unit of electrical power?

A.
The ampere (0% chose this)
B.
The volt (0% chose this)
C.
The watt (0% chose this)
D.
The ohm (0% chose this)

5-03-04

Which electrical circuit will have no current?

A.
A short circuit (0% chose this)
B.
An open circuit (0% chose this)
C.
A complete circuit (0% chose this)
D.
A closed circuit (0% chose this)

5-03-05

Which electrical circuit uses too much current?

A.
A dead circuit (0% chose this)
B.
A short circuit (0% chose this)
C.
A closed circuit (0% chose this)
D.
An open circuit (0% chose this)

5-03-06

Power is expressed in:

A.
volts (0% chose this)
B.
amperes (0% chose this)
C.
watts (0% chose this)
D.
ohms (0% chose this)

5-03-07

Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power?

A.
Inductance and capacitance (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage and inductance (0% chose this)
C.
Voltage and current (0% chose this)
D.
Resistance and capacitance (0% chose this)

5-03-08

Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watts"?

A.
Volts and farads (0% chose this)
B.
Farads and henrys (0% chose this)
C.
Amperes and henrys (0% chose this)
D.
Volts and amperes (0% chose this)

5-03-09

A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much:

A.
voltage (0% chose this)
B.
resistance (0% chose this)
C.
current (0% chose this)
D.
power (0% chose this)

5-03-10

High power resistors are usually large with heavy leads. The size aids the operation of the resistor by:

A.
allowing higher voltage to be handled (0% chose this)
B.
increasing the effective resistance of the resistor (0% chose this)
C.
allowing heat to dissipate more readily (0% chose this)
D.
making it shock proof (0% chose this)

5-03-11

The resistor that could dissipate the most heat would be marked:

A.
100 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
2 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
20 watts (0% chose this)
D.
0.5 watt (0% chose this)

5-04-01

If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor?

A.
48 volts (0% chose this)
B.
52 volts (0% chose this)
C.
100 volts (0% chose this)
D.
25 volts (0% chose this)

5-04-02

How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known?

A.
Current equals voltage divided by resistance (0% chose this)
B.
Current equals resistance multiplied by voltage (0% chose this)
C.
Current equals resistance divided by voltage (0% chose this)
D.
Current equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this)

5-04-03

How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and current are known?

A.
Resistance equals current multiplied by voltage (0% chose this)
B.
Resistance equals voltage divided by current (0% chose this)
C.
Resistance equals power divided by voltage (0% chose this)
D.
Resistance equals current divided by voltage (0% chose this)

5-04-04

How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current and resistance are known?

A.
Voltage equals current divided by resistance (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage equals resistance divided by current (0% chose this)
C.
Voltage equals power divided by current (0% chose this)
D.
Voltage equals current multiplied by resistance (0% chose this)

5-04-05

If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is the circuit's resistance?

A.
3 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
48 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
12 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
0.25 ohm (0% chose this)

5-04-06

Calculate the value of resistance necessary to drop 100 volts with current flow of .8 milliamperes:

A.
125 kilohms (0% chose this)
B.
125 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
1250 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
1.25 kilohms (0% chose this)

5-04-07

The voltage required to force a current of 4.4 amperes through a resistance of 50 ohms is:

A.
220 volts (0% chose this)
B.
2220 volts (0% chose this)
C.
22.0 volts (0% chose this)
D.
0.220 volt (0% chose this)

5-04-08

A lamp has a resistance of 30 ohms and a 6 volt battery is connected. The current flow will be:

A.
2 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
0.5 ampere (0% chose this)
C.
0.005 ampere (0% chose this)
D.
0.2 ampere (0% chose this)

5-04-09

What voltage would be needed to supply a current of 200 mA, to operate an electric lamp which has a resistance of 25 ohms?

A.
5 volts (0% chose this)
B.
8 volts (0% chose this)
C.
175 volts (0% chose this)
D.
225 volts (0% chose this)

5-04-10

The resistance of a circuit can be found by using one of the following:

A.
R = E/I (0% chose this)
B.
R = I/E (0% chose this)
C.
R = E/R (0% chose this)
D.
R = E X I (0% chose this)

5-04-11

If a 3 volt battery supplies 300 mA to a circuit, the circuit resistance is:

A.
10 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
9 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
5 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
3 ohms (0% chose this)

5-05-01

In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors?

A.
It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this)
B.
It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor (0% chose this)
C.
It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the total number ofresistors (0% chose this)

5-05-02

A 6 volt battery is connected across three resistances of connected in parallel.

A.
The current through the 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 20 ohms separate resistances, when added together, equals the total current drawn from the battery (0% chose this)
B.
The current flowing through the 10 ohm resistance is less than that flowing through the 20 ohm resistance (0% chose this)
C.
The voltage drop across each resistance added together equals 6 volts (0% chose this)
D.
The voltage drop across the 20 ohm resistance is greater than the voltage across the 10 ohm resistance (0% chose this)

5-05-03

Total resistance in a parallel circuit:

A.
is always less than the smallest resistance (0% chose this)
B.
depends upon the IR drop across each branch (0% chose this)
C.
could be equal to the resistance of one branch (0% chose this)
D.
depends upon the applied voltage (0% chose this)

5-05-04

Two resistors are connected in paralle and are connected across a 40 volt battery. If each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total current is:

A.
80 milliamperes (0% chose this)
B.
40 milliamperes (0% chose this)
C.
80 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
40 amperes (0% chose this)

5-05-05

The total resistance of resistors connected in series is:

A.
greater than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this)
B.
less than the resistance of any one resistor (0% chose this)
C.
equal to the highest resistance present (0% chose this)
D.
equal to the lowest resistance present (0% chose this)

5-05-06

Five 10 ohm resistors connected in series equals:

A.
50 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
5 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
10 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
1 ohm (0% chose this)

5-05-07

Which series combination of resistors would replace a single 120 ohm resistor?

A.
six 22 ohm (0% chose this)
B.
two 62 ohm (0% chose this)
C.
five 100 ohm (0% chose this)
D.
five 24 ohm (0% chose this)

5-05-08

If ten resistors of equal value were wired in parallel, the total resistance would be:

A.
10 / R (0% chose this)
B.
R / 10 (0% chose this)
C.
10 x R (0% chose this)
D.
10 + R (0% chose this)

5-05-09

The total resistance of four 68 ohm resistors wired in parallel is:

A.
12 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
34 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
272 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
17 ohms (0% chose this)

5-05-10

Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries twice the current of resistor B, which means that:

A.
the voltage across B is twice that across A (0% chose this)
B.
the voltage across A is twice that across B (0% chose this)
C.
A has half the resistance of B (0% chose this)
D.
B has half the resistance of A (0% chose this)

5-05-11

The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the:

A.
source voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements (0% chose this)
B.
sum of the currents through all the parallel branches (0% chose this)
C.
source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements (0% chose this)
D.
current in any one of the parallel branches (0% chose this)

5-06-01

Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of the same resistance?

A.
For better response time (0% chose this)
B.
For a higher current gain (0% chose this)
C.
For less impedance in the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
For greater power dissipation (0% chose this)

5-06-02

How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 ampere?

A.
2.4 watts (0% chose this)
B.
60 watts (0% chose this)
C.
24 watts (0% chose this)
D.
6 watts (0% chose this)

5-06-03

The DC input power of a transmitter operating at 12 volts and drawing 500 milliamps would be:

A.
20 watts (0% chose this)
B.
6 watts (0% chose this)
C.
500 watts (0% chose this)
D.
12 watts (0% chose this)

5-06-04

When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in series, the maximum total power that can be dissipated by the resistors is:

A.
1 watt (0% chose this)
B.
2 watts (0% chose this)
C.
1/2 watt (0% chose this)
D.
4 watts (0% chose this)

5-06-05

When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in parallel, they can dissipate a maximum total power of:

A.
1/2 watt (0% chose this)
B.
1 watt (0% chose this)
C.
2 watts (0% chose this)
D.
4 watts (0% chose this)

5-06-06

If the voltage applied to two resistors in series is doubled, how much will the total power change?

A.
increase four times (0% chose this)
B.
decrease to half (0% chose this)
C.
double (0% chose this)
D.
no change (0% chose this)

5-06-07

If the power is 500 watts and the resistance is 20 ohms, the current is:

A.
2.5 amps (0% chose this)
B.
10 amps (0% chose this)
C.
25 amps (0% chose this)
D.
5 amps (0% chose this)

5-06-08

A 12 volt light bulb is rated at a power of 30 watts. The current drawn would be:

A.
30/12 amps (0% chose this)
B.
18 amps (0% chose this)
C.
360 amps (0% chose this)
D.
12/30 amps (0% chose this)

5-06-09

If two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series with a 10 volt battery, the power consumption would be:

A.
5 watts (0% chose this)
B.
10 watts (0% chose this)
C.
20 watts (0% chose this)
D.
100 watts (0% chose this)

5-06-10

One advantage of replacing a 50 ohm resistor with a parallel combination of two similarly rated 100 ohm resistors is that the parallel combination will have:

A.
the same resistance but lesser power rating (0% chose this)
B.
greater resistance and similar power rating (0% chose this)
C.
the same resistance but greater power rating (0% chose this)
D.
lesser resistance and similar power rating (0% chose this)

5-06-11

Resistor wattage ratings are:

A.
calculated according to physical size (0% chose this)
B.
expressed in joules per second (0% chose this)
C.
determined by heat dissipation qualities (0% chose this)
D.
variable in steps of one hundred (0% chose this)

5-07-01

What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth?

A.
Speed (0% chose this)
B.
Pulse rate (0% chose this)
C.
Frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Inductance (0% chose this)

5-07-02

Approximately what frequency range can most humans hear?

A.
20 000 - 30 000 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
200 - 200 000 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
20 - 20 000 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
0 - 20 Hz (0% chose this)

5-07-03

Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz audio frequencies?

A.
Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range (0% chose this)
B.
Because this range is too low for radio energy (0% chose this)
C.
Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range (0% chose this)
D.
Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range (0% chose this)

5-07-04

Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?

A.
Radio (0% chose this)
B.
Audio (0% chose this)
C.
Hyper (0% chose this)
D.
Super-high (0% chose this)

5-07-05

What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle?

A.
Wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
Wave speed (0% chose this)
C.
Waveform (0% chose this)
D.
Wave spread (0% chose this)

5-07-06

What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases?

A.
It gets longer (0% chose this)
B.
It stays the same (0% chose this)
C.
It disappears (0% chose this)
D.
It gets shorter (0% chose this)

5-07-07

What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets longer?

A.
It disappears (0% chose this)
B.
It stays the same (0% chose this)
C.
It goes down (0% chose this)
D.
It goes up (0% chose this)

5-07-08

What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean?

A.
6000 metres per second (0% chose this)
B.
60 cycles per second (0% chose this)
C.
60 metres per second (0% chose this)
D.
6000 cycles per second (0% chose this)

5-07-09

If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz, the time for one cycle is:

A.
10 seconds (0% chose this)
B.
0.0001 second (0% chose this)
C.
0.01 second (0% chose this)
D.
1 second (0% chose this)

5-07-10

Current in an AC circuit goes through a complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means the AC has a frequency of:

A.
10 Hz (0% chose this)
B.
1 Hz (0% chose this)
C.
100 Hz (0% chose this)
D.
1000 Hz (0% chose this)

5-07-11

A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 kHz and another of 4 kHz. This 4 kHz signal is referred to as:

A.
a fundamental of the 2 kHz signal (0% chose this)
B.
the DC component of the main signal (0% chose this)
C.
a dielectric signal of the main signal (0% chose this)
D.
a harmonic of the 2 kHz signal (0% chose this)

5-08-01

A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB?

A.
6 dB higher (0% chose this)
B.
3 dB higher (0% chose this)
C.
12 dB higher (0% chose this)
D.
1 dB higher (0% chose this)

5-08-02

How can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 dB?

A.
Divide the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)
B.
Divide the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
C.
Divide the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
D.
Divide the original power by 2 (0% chose this)

5-08-03

How can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 dB?

A.
Multiply the original power by 3 (0% chose this)
B.
Multiply the original power by 2 (0% chose this)
C.
Multiply the original power by 4 (0% chose this)
D.
Multiply the original power by 1.5 (0% chose this)

5-08-04

If a signal-strength report is "10 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?

A.
S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
B.
S9 minus 10 dB (0% chose this)
C.
S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
D.
S9 (0% chose this)

5-08-05

If a signal-strength report is "20 dB over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts?

A.
S9 plus 10 dB (0% chose this)
B.
S9 plus 5 dB (0% chose this)
C.
S9 plus 3 dB (0% chose this)
D.
S9 (0% chose this)

5-08-06

The unit "decibel" is used to indicate:

A.
an oscilloscope wave form (0% chose this)
B.
a mathematical ratio (0% chose this)
C.
certain radio waves (0% chose this)
D.
a single side band signal (0% chose this)

5-08-07

The power output from a transmitter increases from 1 watt to 2 watts. This is a db increase of:

A.
30 (0% chose this)
B.
6 (0% chose this)
C.
3 (0% chose this)
D.
1 (0% chose this)

5-08-08

The power of a transmitter is increased from 5 watts to 50 watts by a linear amplifier. The power gain, expressed in dB, is:

A.
30 dB (0% chose this)
B.
10 dB (0% chose this)
C.
40 dB (0% chose this)
D.
20 dB (0% chose this)

5-08-09

You add a 9 dB gain amplifier to your 2 watt handheld. What is the power output of the combination?

A.
11 watts (0% chose this)
B.
16 watts (0% chose this)
C.
20 watts (0% chose this)
D.
18 watts (0% chose this)

5-08-10

The power of a transmitter is increased from 2 watts to 8 watts. This is a power gain of _______ dB.

A.
6 dB (0% chose this)
B.
3 dB (0% chose this)
C.
8 dB (0% chose this)
D.
9 dB (0% chose this)

5-08-11

A local amateur reports your 100W 2M simplex VHF transmission as 30 dB over S9. To reduce your signal to S9, you would reduce your power to _______ watts.

A.
1 W (0% chose this)
B.
10 W (0% chose this)
C.
33.3 W (0% chose this)
D.
100 mW (0% chose this)

5-09-01

If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance?

A.
Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
B.
The same as the value of either inductor (0% chose this)
C.
The value of one inductor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
D.
Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this)

5-09-02

If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance?

A.
Twice the value of one inductor (0% chose this)
B.
The same as the value of either inductor (0% chose this)
C.
The value of one inductor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
D.
Half the value of one inductor (0% chose this)

5-09-03

If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance?

A.
Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)
B.
The same as the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
D.
Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)

5-09-04

If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance?

A.
The same as the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
B.
Twice the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
D.
Half the value of one capacitor (0% chose this)

5-09-05

What determines the inductance of a coil?

A.
The core material, the number of turns used to wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil (0% chose this)
B.
The core diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire (0% chose this)
C.
The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil (0% chose this)
D.
The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically (0% chose this)

5-09-06

What determines the capacitance of a capacitor?

A.
The material between the plates, the area of one side of one plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates (0% chose this)
B.
The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates (0% chose this)
C.
The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type (0% chose this)
D.
The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating (0% chose this)

5-09-07

If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their capacitance?

A.
The same value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
B.
The value of one capacitor times the value of the other (0% chose this)
C.
Half the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
Twice the value of either capacitor (0% chose this)

5-09-08

To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you could use two:

A.
Two 20 millihenry chokes in series (0% chose this)
B.
Two 5 millihenry chokes in series (0% chose this)
C.
Two 30 millihenry chokes in parallel (0% chose this)
D.
Two 5 millihenry chokes in parallel (0% chose this)

5-09-09

Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in series. The total capacitance of this arrangement is:

A.
45 microfarads (0% chose this)
B.
12 microfarads (0% chose this)
C.
5 microfarads (0% chose this)
D.
18 microfarads (0% chose this)

5-09-10

Which series combinations of capacitors would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad capacitor?

A.
two 10 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)
B.
two 20 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)
C.
twenty 2 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)
D.
ten 2 microfarad capacitors (0% chose this)

5-09-11

The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is:

A.
found by adding each of the capacitors together and dividing by the total number of capacitors (0% chose this)
B.
found by adding each of the capacitors together (0% chose this)
C.
always less than the smallest capacitor (0% chose this)
D.
always greater than the largest capacitor (0% chose this)

5-10-01

How does a coil react to AC?

A.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
B.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
C.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
D.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)

5-10-02

How does a capacitor react to AC?

A.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)
B.
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
C.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases (0% chose this)
D.
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases (0% chose this)

5-10-03

The reactance of capacitors increases as:

A.
applied voltage increases (0% chose this)
B.
AC frequency decreases (0% chose this)
C.
applied voltage decreases (0% chose this)
D.
AC frequency increases (0% chose this)

5-10-04

In inductances, AC may be opposed by both resistance of winding wire and reactance due to inductive effect. The term which includes resistance and reactance is:

A.
resonance (0% chose this)
B.
inductance (0% chose this)
C.
impedance (0% chose this)
D.
capacitance (0% chose this)

5-10-05

Capacitive reactance:

A.
decreases as frequency increases (0% chose this)
B.
applies only to series RLC circuits (0% chose this)
C.
increases as frequency increases (0% chose this)
D.
increases with the time constant (0% chose this)

5-10-06

Inductive reactance may be increased by:

A.
a decrease in the applied frequency (0% chose this)
B.
a decrease in the supplied current (0% chose this)
C.
an increase in the applied voltage (0% chose this)
D.
an increase in the applied frequency (0% chose this)

5-10-07

A choke coil of 4.25 microhenrys is used in a circuit at a frequency of 200 MHz. Its reactance is approximately:

A.
5 740 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
5 340 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
7 540 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
4 750 ohms (0% chose this)

5-10-08

The capacitive reactance of a 25 microfarad capacitor connected to a 60 hertz line is:

A.
106.1 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
9 420 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
2.4 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
1 500 ohms (0% chose this)

5-10-09

A power-supply filter has a capacitor of 10 microfarad. What is the capacitive reactance of this capacitor to a frequency of 60 hertz?

A.
200 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
100 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
500 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
265 ohms (0% chose this)

5-10-10

What is the approximate inductive reactance of a 1 henry choke coil used in a 60 hertz circuit?

A.
376 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
3760 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
188 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
1888 ohms (0% chose this)

5-10-11

In general, the reactance of inductors increases with:

A.
increasing AC frequency (0% chose this)
B.
decreasing AC frequency (0% chose this)
C.
decreasing applied voltage (0% chose this)
D.
increasing applied voltage (0% chose this)

5-11-01

If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called?

A.
Magnetizing current (0% chose this)
B.
Direct current (0% chose this)
C.
Excitation current (0% chose this)
D.
Stabilizing current (0% chose this)

5-11-02

A transformer operates a 6.3 volt 2 ampere light bulb from its secondary winding. The power consumed by the primary winding is approximately:

A.
13 watts (0% chose this)
B.
6 watts (0% chose this)
C.
8 watts (0% chose this)
D.
3 watts (0% chose this)

5-11-03

A transformer has a 240 volt primary that draws a current of 250 mA from the mains supply. Assuming no losses, what current would be available from a 12 volt secondary?

A.
215 amperes (0% chose this)
B.
25 amperes (0% chose this)
C.
50 amperes (0% chose this)
D.
5 amperes (0% chose this)

5-11-04

In a mains power transformer, the primary winding has 250 turns, and the secondary has 500. If the input voltage is 110 volts, the likely secondary voltage is:

A.
440 V (0% chose this)
B.
220 V (0% chose this)
C.
560 V (0% chose this)
D.
24 V (0% chose this)

5-11-05

The strength of the magnetic field around a conductor in air is:

A.
inversely proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this)
B.
directly proportional to the diameter of the conductor (0% chose this)
C.
directly proportional to the current in the conductor (0% chose this)
D.
inversely proportional to the voltage on the conductor (0% chose this)

5-11-06

Maximum induced voltage in a coil occurs when:

A.
current is going through its greatest rate of change (0% chose this)
B.
the current through the coil is of a DC nature (0% chose this)
C.
current is going through its least rate of change (0% chose this)
D.
the magnetic field around the coil is not changing (0% chose this)

5-11-07

The voltage induced in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is at a maximum when the movement is:

A.
made in a counterclockwise direction (0% chose this)
B.
parallel to the lines of force (0% chose this)
C.
perpendicular to the lines of force (0% chose this)
D.
made in a clockwise direction (0% chose this)

5-11-08

A 100% efficient transformer has a turns ratio of 1/5. If the secondary current is 50 mA, the primary current is:

A.
2 500 mA (0% chose this)
B.
0.01 A (0% chose this)
C.
0.25 A (0% chose this)
D.
0.25 mA (0% chose this)

5-11-09

A force of repulsion exists between two _______ magnetic poles.

A.
unlike (0% chose this)
B.
positive (0% chose this)
C.
negative (0% chose this)
D.
like (0% chose this)

5-11-10

A permanent magnet would most likely be made from:

A.
copper (0% chose this)
B.
aluminum (0% chose this)
C.
brass (0% chose this)
D.
steel (0% chose this)

5-11-11

The fact that energy transfer from primary to secondary windings in a power transformer is not perfect is indicated by:

A.
electrostatic shielding (0% chose this)
B.
large secondary currents (0% chose this)
C.
warm iron laminations (0% chose this)
D.
high primary voltages (0% chose this)

5-12-01

Resonance is the condition that exists when:

A.
inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal (0% chose this)
B.
inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this)
D.
resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this)

5-12-02

Parallel tuned circuits offer:

A.
low impedance at resonance (0% chose this)
B.
zero impedance at resonance (0% chose this)
C.
an impedance equal to resistance of the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
very high impedance at resonance (0% chose this)

5-12-03

Resonance is an electrical property used to describe:

A.
an inductor (0% chose this)
B.
a set of parallel inductors (0% chose this)
C.
the results of tuning a varicap (varactor) (0% chose this)
D.
the frequency characteristic of a coil and capacitor circuit (0% chose this)

5-12-04

A tuned circuit is formed from two basic components. These are:

A.
resistors and transistors (0% chose this)
B.
directors and reflectors (0% chose this)
C.
diodes and transistors (0% chose this)
D.
inductors and capacitors (0% chose this)

5-12-05

When a parallel coil-capacitor combination is supplied with AC of different frequencies, there will be one frequency where the impedance will be highest. This is the:

A.
resonant frequency (0% chose this)
B.
impedance frequency (0% chose this)
C.
inductive frequency (0% chose this)
D.
reactive frequency (0% chose this)

5-12-06

In a parallel-resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has a:

A.
low impedance (0% chose this)
B.
low mutual inductance (0% chose this)
C.
high mutual inductance (0% chose this)
D.
high impedance (0% chose this)

5-12-07

In a series resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has:

A.
low impedance (0% chose this)
B.
high impedance (0% chose this)
C.
low mutual inductance (0% chose this)
D.
high mutual inductance (0% chose this)

5-12-08

A coil and an air-spaced capacitor are arranged to form a resonant circuit. The resonant frequency will remain the same if we:

A.
increase the area of plates in the capacitor (0% chose this)
B.
replace the air dielectric with oil in the capacitor (0% chose this)
C.
wind more turns on the coil (0% chose this)
D.
add a resistor to the circuit (0% chose this)

5-12-09

Resonant circuits in a receiver are used to:

A.
filter direct current (0% chose this)
B.
select signal frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
increase power (0% chose this)
D.
adjust voltage levels (0% chose this)

5-12-10

Resonance is the condition that exists when:

A.
inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal and opposite in sign (0% chose this)
B.
inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
the circuit contains no resistance (0% chose this)
D.
resistance is equal to the reactance (0% chose this)

5-12-11

When a series LCR circuit is tuned to the frequency of the source, the:

A.
line current lags the applied voltage (0% chose this)
B.
line current leads the applied voltage (0% chose this)
C.
line current reaches maximum (0% chose this)
D.
impedance is maximum (0% chose this)

5-13-01

How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?

A.
In series with the circuit (0% chose this)
B.
In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
In phase with the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this)

5-13-02

How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?

A.
In quadrature with the circuit (0% chose this)
B.
In series with the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
In phase with the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
In parallel with the circuit (0% chose this)

5-13-03

What does a multimeter measure?

A.
Resistance, capacitance and inductance (0% chose this)
B.
Voltage, current and resistance (0% chose this)
C.
Resistance and reactance (0% chose this)
D.
SWR and power (0% chose this)

5-13-04

The correct instrument to measure plate current or collector current of a transmitter is:

A.
an ohmmeter (0% chose this)
B.
a wattmeter (0% chose this)
C.
an ammeter (0% chose this)
D.
a voltmeter (0% chose this)

5-13-05

Which of the following meters would you use to measure the power supply current drawn by a small hand-held transistorized receiver?

A.
a DC ammeter (0% chose this)
B.
an RF ammeter (0% chose this)
C.
an RF power meter (0% chose this)
D.
an electrostatic voltmeter (0% chose this)

5-13-06

When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, it is true to say that the meter will act in circuit as:

A.
a perfect conductor (0% chose this)
B.
a low value resistance (0% chose this)
C.
an extra current drain (0% chose this)
D.
an insulator (0% chose this)

5-13-07

When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed:

A.
in series with both receiver power leads (0% chose this)
B.
in series with one of the receiver power leads (0% chose this)
C.
in parallel with both receiver power supply leads (0% chose this)
D.
in parallel with one of the receiver power leads (0% chose this)

5-13-08

Potential difference is measured by means of:

A.
a wattmeter (0% chose this)
B.
an ohmmeter (0% chose this)
C.
a voltmeter (0% chose this)
D.
an ammeter (0% chose this)

5-13-09

Voltage drop means:

A.
the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is accomplished (0% chose this)
B.
difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer (0% chose this)
C.
voltage between the terminals of a component (0% chose this)
D.
any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage (0% chose this)

5-13-10

The instrument used for measuring the flow of electrical current is the:

A.
faradmeter (0% chose this)
B.
wattmeter (0% chose this)
C.
ammeter (0% chose this)
D.
voltmeter (0% chose this)

5-13-11

In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with:

A.
the voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel (0% chose this)
B.
the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series (0% chose this)
C.
both voltmeter and ammeter in series (0% chose this)
D.
both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel (0% chose this)

6-01-01

What connects your transceiver to your antenna?

A.
The power cord (0% chose this)
B.
A ground wire (0% chose this)
C.
A feed line (0% chose this)
D.
A dummy load (0% chose this)

6-01-02

The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by the:

A.
length of the line (0% chose this)
B.
physical dimensions and relative positions of the conductors (0% chose this)
C.
frequency at which the line is operated (0% chose this)
D.
load placed on the line (0% chose this)

6-01-03

The characteristic impedance of a 20 metre piece of transmission line is 52 ohms. If 10 metres were cut off, the impedance would be:

A.
52 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
26 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
39 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
13 ohms (0% chose this)

6-01-04

The impedance of a coaxial line:

A.
can be the same for different diameter line (0% chose this)
B.
changes with the frequency of the energy it carries (0% chose this)
C.
is correct for only one size of line (0% chose this)
D.
is greater for larger diameter line (0% chose this)

6-01-05

What commonly available antenna feed line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?

A.
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
B.
600 ohm open-wire (0% chose this)
C.
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
D.
coaxial cable (0% chose this)

6-01-06

The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is:

A.
the impedance of a section of the line one wavelength long (0% chose this)
B.
the dynamic impedance of the line at the operating frequency (0% chose this)
C.
the ratio of the power supplied to the line to the power delivered to the termination (0% chose this)
D.
equal to the pure resistance which, if connected to the end of the line, will absorb all the power arriving along it (0% chose this)

6-01-07

A transmission line differs from an ordinary circuit or network in communications or signaling devices in one very important way. That important aspect is:

A.
capacitive reactance (0% chose this)
B.
inductive reactance (0% chose this)
C.
propagation delay (0% chose this)
D.
resistance (0% chose this)

6-01-08

The characteristic impedance of a parallel wire transmission line does not depend on the:

A.
velocity of energy on the line (0% chose this)
B.
radius of the conductors (0% chose this)
C.
centre to centre distance between conductors (0% chose this)
D.
dielectric (0% chose this)

6-01-09

Any length of transmission line may be made to appear as an infinitely long line by:

A.
terminating the line in its characteristic impedance (0% chose this)
B.
leaving the line open at the end (0% chose this)
C.
shorting the line at the end (0% chose this)
D.
increasing the standing wave ratio above unity (0% chose this)

6-01-10

What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna feed line?

A.
The distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors (0% chose this)
B.
The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line (0% chose this)
C.
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
D.
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)

6-01-11

What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a coaxial antenna feed line?

A.
The ratio of the diameter of the inner conductor to the diameter of the braid (0% chose this)
B.
The diameter of the braid and the length of the line (0% chose this)
C.
The diameter of the braid and the frequency of the signal (0% chose this)
D.
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line (0% chose this)

6-02-01

What is a coaxial cable?

A.
Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon (0% chose this)
B.
Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods (0% chose this)
C.
Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral (0% chose this)
D.
A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield (0% chose this)

6-02-02

What is parallel-conductor feed line?

A.
Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral (0% chose this)
B.
A center wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield (0% chose this)
C.
A metal pipe which is as wide or slightly wider than a wavelength of the signal it carries (0% chose this)
D.
Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods (0% chose this)

6-02-03

What kind of antenna feed line is made of two conductors held apart by insulated rods?

A.
Open-conductor ladder line (0% chose this)
B.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
C.
Twin lead in a plastic ribbon (0% chose this)
D.
Twisted pair (0% chose this)

6-02-04

What does the term "balun" mean?

A.
Balanced unloader (0% chose this)
B.
Balanced to unbalanced (0% chose this)
C.
Balanced unmodulator (0% chose this)
D.
Balanced antenna network (0% chose this)

6-02-05

Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?

A.
Between the coaxial cable and the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable (0% chose this)
C.
Between the antenna and the ground (0% chose this)
D.
Between the coaxial cable and the ground (0% chose this)

6-02-06

What is an unbalanced line?

A.
Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground (0% chose this)
B.
Feed line with both conductors connected to ground (0% chose this)
C.
Feed line with both conductors connected to each other (0% chose this)
D.
Feed line with one conductor connected to ground (0% chose this)

6-02-07

What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced feed line?

A.
A triaxial transformer (0% chose this)
B.
A balun (0% chose this)
C.
A wavetrap (0% chose this)
D.
A loading coil (0% chose this)

6-02-08

A flexible coaxial line contains:

A.
four or more conductors running parallel (0% chose this)
B.
only one conductor (0% chose this)
C.
braid and insulation around a central conductor (0% chose this)
D.
two parallel conductors separated by spacers (0% chose this)

6-02-09

A balanced transmission line:

A.
is made of two parallel wires (0% chose this)
B.
has one conductor inside the other (0% chose this)
C.
carries RF current on one wire only (0% chose this)
D.
is made of one conductor only (0% chose this)

6-02-10

A 75 ohm transmission line could be matched to the 300 ohm feedpoint of an antenna:

A.
with an extra 250 ohm resistor (0% chose this)
B.
by using a 4 to 1 balun (0% chose this)
C.
by using a 4 to 1 trigatron (0% chose this)
D.
by inserting a diode in one leg of the antenna (0% chose this)

6-02-11

What kind of antenna feed line can be constructed using two conductors which are maintained a uniform distance apart using insulated spreaders?

A.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
B.
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
C.
600 ohm open-wire (0% chose this)
D.
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)

6-03-01

Why does coaxial cable make a good antenna feed line?

A.
It is weatherproof, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
B.
It is weatherproof, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
C.
It can be used near metal objects, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas (0% chose this)
D.
You can make it at home, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas (0% chose this)

6-03-02

What is the best antenna feed line to use, if it must be put near grounded metal objects?

A.
Ladder-line (0% chose this)
B.
Twisted pair (0% chose this)
C.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
D.
Twin lead (0% chose this)

6-03-03

What are some reasons not to use parallel-conductor feed line?

A.
You must use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver, and it does not work very well with a high SWR (0% chose this)
B.
It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and it cannot operate under high power (0% chose this)
C.
It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and you must use an impedance- matching device with your transceiver (0% chose this)
D.
It is difficult to make at home, and it does not work very well with a high SWR (0% chose this)

6-03-04

What common connector usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver?

A.
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
B.
An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
C.
A banana plug connector (0% chose this)
D.
A binding post connector (0% chose this)

6-03-05

What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to its antenna?

A.
A BNC connector (0% chose this)
B.
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
C.
An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
D.
A binding post connector (0% chose this)

6-03-06

Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF?

A.
An F-type cable connector (0% chose this)
B.
A BNC connector (0% chose this)
C.
A PL-259 connector (0% chose this)
D.
A type-N connector (0% chose this)

6-03-07

If you install a 6 metre Yagi antenna on a tower 50 metres from your transmitter, which of the following feed lines is best?

A.
RG-174 (0% chose this)
B.
RG-59 (0% chose this)
C.
RG-213 (0% chose this)
D.
RG-58 (0% chose this)

6-03-08

Why should you regularly clean, tighten and re-solder all antenna connectors?

A.
To help keep their resistance at a minimum (0% chose this)
B.
To keep them looking nice (0% chose this)
C.
To keep them from getting stuck in place (0% chose this)
D.
To increase their capacitance (0% chose this)

6-03-09

What commonly available antenna feed line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?

A.
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
B.
600 ohm open-wire (0% chose this)
C.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)
D.
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)

6-03-10

When antenna feed lines must be placed near grounded metal objects, which of the following feed lines should be used?

A.
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
B.
600 ohm open-wire (0% chose this)
C.
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
D.
Coaxial cable (0% chose this)

6-03-11

TV twin-lead feed line can be used for a feed line in an amateur station. The impedance of this line is approximately:

A.
600 ohms (0% chose this)
B.
50 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
300 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
70 ohms (0% chose this)

6-04-01

Why should you use only good quality coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF antenna system?

A.
To keep television interference high (0% chose this)
B.
To keep the power going to your antenna system from getting too high (0% chose this)
C.
To keep the standing wave ratio of your antenna system high (0% chose this)
D.
To keep RF loss low (0% chose this)

6-04-02

What are some reasons to use parallelconductor feed line?

A.
It will operate with a high SWR, and has less loss than coaxial cable (0% chose this)
B.
It has low impedance, and will operate with a high SWR (0% chose this)
C.
It will operate with a high SWR, and it works well when tied down to metal objects (0% chose this)
D.
It has a low impedance, and has less loss than coaxial cable (0% chose this)

6-04-03

If your transmitter and antenna are 15 metres apart, but are connected by 65 metres of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should be done to reduce feed line loss?

A.
Shorten the excess cable so the feed line is an odd number of wavelengths long (0% chose this)
B.
Shorten the excess cable (0% chose this)
C.
Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as possible (0% chose this)
D.
Shorten the excess cable so the feed line is an even number of wavelengths long (0% chose this)

6-04-04

As the length of a feed line is changed, what happens to signal loss?

A.
Signal loss decreases as length increases (0% chose this)
B.
Signal loss increases as length increases (0% chose this)
C.
Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal's wavelength (0% chose this)
D.
Signal loss is the same for any length of feed line (0% chose this)

6-04-05

As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a feed line?

A.
Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Signal loss increases with increasing frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the same as the feed line's length (0% chose this)
D.
Signal loss is the same for any frequency (0% chose this)

6-04-06

Losses occurring on a transmission line between transmitter and antenna results in:

A.
an SWR reading of 1:1 (0% chose this)
B.
less RF power being radiated (0% chose this)
C.
reflections occurring in the line (0% chose this)
D.
the wire radiating RF energy (0% chose this)

6-04-07

The lowest loss feed line on HF is:

A.
open-wire (0% chose this)
B.
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
C.
coaxial cable (0% chose this)
D.
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)

6-04-08

In what values are RF feed line losses expressed?

A.
ohms per MHz (0% chose this)
B.
dB per MHz (0% chose this)
C.
ohms per metre (0% chose this)
D.
dB per unit length (0% chose this)

6-04-09

If the length of coaxial feed line is increased from 20 metres (65.6 ft) to 40 metres (131.2 ft), how would this affect the line loss?

A.
It would be increased by 100% (0% chose this)
B.
It would be reduced by 10% (0% chose this)
C.
It would be increased by 10% (0% chose this)
D.
It would be reduced to 50% (0% chose this)

6-04-10

If the frequency is increased, how would this affect the loss on a transmission line?

A.
It is independent of frequency (0% chose this)
B.
It would increase (0% chose this)
C.
It depends on the line length (0% chose this)
D.
It would decrease (0% chose this)

6-05-01

What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean?

A.
The best impedance match has been attained (0% chose this)
B.
An antenna for another frequency band is probably connected (0% chose this)
C.
No power is going to the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
The SWR meter is broken (0% chose this)

6-05-02

What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean?

A.
A fairly good impedance match (0% chose this)
B.
An impedance match which is too low (0% chose this)
C.
An impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna system (0% chose this)
D.
An antenna gain of 1.5 (0% chose this)

6-05-03

What kind of SWR reading may mean poor electrical contact between parts of an antenna system?

A.
A negative reading (0% chose this)
B.
No reading at all (0% chose this)
C.
A jumpy reading (0% chose this)
D.
A very low reading (0% chose this)

6-05-04

What does a very high SWR reading mean?

A.
The transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing that it is about to go bad (0% chose this)
B.
The antenna is the wrong length, or there may be an open or shorted connection somewhere in the feed line (0% chose this)
C.
There is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very poor radio conditions (0% chose this)
D.
The signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, which means very good radio conditions (0% chose this)

6-05-05

What does standing-wave ratio mean?

A.
The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line (0% chose this)
B.
The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line (0% chose this)
C.
The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line (0% chose this)
D.
The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line (0% chose this)

6-05-06

If your antenna feed line gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean?

A.
You should transmit using less power (0% chose this)
B.
The conductors in the feed line are not insulated very well (0% chose this)
C.
The feed line is too long (0% chose this)
D.
The SWR may be too high, or the feed line loss may be high (0% chose this)

6-05-07

If the characteristic impedance of the feedline does not match the antenna input impedance then:

A.
heat is produced at the junction (0% chose this)
B.
the SWR reading falls to 1:1 (0% chose this)
C.
the antenna will not radiate any signal (0% chose this)
D.
standing waves are produced in the feedline (0% chose this)

6-05-08

The result of the presence of standing waves on a transmission line is:

A.
perfect impedance match between transmitter and feedline (0% chose this)
B.
maximum transfer of energy to the antenna from the transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
lack of radiation from the transmission line (0% chose this)
D.
reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna (0% chose this)

6-05-09

An SWR meter measures the degree of match between transmission line and antenna by:

A.
comparing forward and reflected voltage (0% chose this)
B.
measuring radiated RF energy (0% chose this)
C.
measuring the conductor temperature (0% chose this)
D.
inserting a diode in the feed line (0% chose this)

6-05-10

A resonant antenna having a feed point impedance of 200 ohms is connected to a feed line and transmitter which have an impedance of 50 ohms. What will the standing wave ratio of this system be?

A.
6:1 (0% chose this)
B.
3:1 (0% chose this)
C.
4:1 (0% chose this)
D.
5:1 (0% chose this)

6-05-11

The type of feed line best suited to operating at a high standing wave ratio is:

A.
75 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)
B.
600 ohm open-wire (0% chose this)
C.
coaxial line (0% chose this)
D.
300 ohm twin-lead (0% chose this)

6-06-01

What device might allow use of an antenna on a band it was not designed for?

A.
An antenna tuner (0% chose this)
B.
An SWR meter (0% chose this)
C.
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
A high pass filter (0% chose this)

6-06-02

What does an antenna matching unit do?

A.
It matches a transceiver to a mismatched antenna system (0% chose this)
B.
It helps a receiver automatically tune in stations that are far away (0% chose this)
C.
It switches an antenna system to a transmitter when sending, and to a receiver when listening (0% chose this)
D.
It switches a transceiver between different kinds of antennas connected to one feed line (0% chose this)

6-06-03

What would you use to connect a coaxial cable of 50 ohms impedance to an antenna of 35 ohms impedance?

A.
An SWR meter (0% chose this)
B.
An impedance-matching device (0% chose this)
C.
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
A terminating resistor (0% chose this)

6-06-04

When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load?

A.
When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core transformers (0% chose this)
B.
When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current (0% chose this)
C.
When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source (0% chose this)
D.
When the load resistance is infinite (0% chose this)

6-06-05

What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source?

A.
The electrical load is shorted (0% chose this)
B.
The source delivers maximum power to the load (0% chose this)
C.
No current can flow through the circuit (0% chose this)
D.
The source delivers minimum power to the load (0% chose this)

6-06-06

Why is impedance matching important?

A.
So the load will draw minimum power from the source (0% chose this)
B.
To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit (0% chose this)
C.
To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal (0% chose this)
D.
So the source can deliver maximum power to the load (0% chose this)

6-06-07

To obtain efficient power transmission from a transmitter to an antenna requires:

A.
high load impedance (0% chose this)
B.
low ohmic resistance (0% chose this)
C.
matching of impedances (0% chose this)
D.
inductive impedance (0% chose this)

6-06-08

To obtain efficient transfer of power from a transmitter to an antenna, it is important that there is a:

A.
high load impedance (0% chose this)
B.
matching of impedance (0% chose this)
C.
proper method of balance (0% chose this)
D.
low ohmic resistance (0% chose this)

6-06-09

If an antenna is correctly matched to a transmitter, the length of transmission line:

A.
must be a full wavelength long (0% chose this)
B.
must be an odd number of quarter-wave (0% chose this)
C.
must be an even number of half-waves (0% chose this)
D.
will have no effect on the matching (0% chose this)

6-06-10

The reason that an RF transmission line should be matched at the transmitter end is to:

A.
ensure that the radiated signal has the intended polarization (0% chose this)
B.
transfer the maximum amount of power to the antenna (0% chose this)
C.
prevent frequency drift (0% chose this)
D.
overcome fading of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)

6-06-11

If the centre impedance of a folded dipole is approximately 300 ohms, and you are using RG8U (50 ohms) coaxial lines, what is the ratio required to have the line and the antenna matched?

A.
2:1 (0% chose this)
B.
4:1 (0% chose this)
C.
10:1 (0% chose this)
D.
6:1 (0% chose this)

6-07-01

What does horizontal wave polarization mean?

A.
The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface (0% chose this)
B.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface (0% chose this)
C.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface (0% chose this)
D.
The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface (0% chose this)

6-07-02

What does vertical wave polarization mean?

A.
The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface (0% chose this)
B.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the earth's surface (0% chose this)
C.
The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface (0% chose this)
D.
The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the earth's surface (0% chose this)

6-07-03

What electromagnetic wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when its elements are parallel to the earth's surface?

A.
Helical (0% chose this)
B.
Horizontal (0% chose this)
C.
Vertical (0% chose this)
D.
Circular (0% chose this)

6-07-04

What electromagnetic wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the earth's surface?

A.
Circular (0% chose this)
B.
Horizontal (0% chose this)
C.
Parabolical (0% chose this)
D.
Vertical (0% chose this)

6-07-05

Polarization of an antenna is determined by:

A.
the height of the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
the electric field (0% chose this)
C.
the type of antenna (0% chose this)
D.
the magnetic field (0% chose this)

6-07-06

An isotropic antenna is a:

A.
hypothetical point source (0% chose this)
B.
infinitely long piece of wire (0% chose this)
C.
dummy load (0% chose this)
D.
half-wave reference dipole (0% chose this)

6-07-07

What is the antenna radiation pattern for an isotropic radiator?

A.
A parabola (0% chose this)
B.
A cardioid (0% chose this)
C.
A unidirectional cardioid (0% chose this)
D.
A sphere (0% chose this)

6-07-08

VHF signals from a mobile station using a vertical whip antenna will normally be best received using a:

A.
random length of wire (0% chose this)
B.
horizontal ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
C.
vertical ground-plane antenna (0% chose this)
D.
horizontal dipole antenna (0% chose this)

6-07-09

A dipole antenna will emit a vertically polarized wave if it is:

A.
fed with the correct type of RF (0% chose this)
B.
too near to the ground (0% chose this)
C.
parallel with the ground (0% chose this)
D.
mounted vertically (0% chose this)

6-07-10

If an electromagnetic wave leaves an antenna vertically polarized, it will arrive at the receiving antenna, by ground wave:

A.
polarized at right angles to original (0% chose this)
B.
vertically polarized (0% chose this)
C.
horizontally polarized (0% chose this)
D.
polarized in any plane (0% chose this)

6-07-11

Compared with a horizontal antenna, a vertical antenna will receive a vertically polarized radio wave:

A.
at weaker strength (0% chose this)
B.
without any comparative difference (0% chose this)
C.
if the antenna changes the polarization (0% chose this)
D.
at greater strength (0% chose this)

6-08-01

If an antenna is made longer, what happens to its resonant frequency?

A.
It decreases (0% chose this)
B.
It increases (0% chose this)
C.
It stays the same (0% chose this)
D.
It disappears (0% chose this)

6-08-02

If an antenna is made shorter, what happens to its resonant frequency?

A.
It stays the same (0% chose this)
B.
It increases (0% chose this)
C.
It disappears (0% chose this)
D.
It decreases (0% chose this)

6-08-03

The wavelength for a frequency of 25 MHz is:

A.
15 metres (49.2 ft) (0% chose this)
B.
4 metres (13.1 ft) (0% chose this)
C.
12 metres (39.4 ft) (0% chose this)
D.
32 metres (105 ft) (0% chose this)

6-08-04

The velocity of propagation of radio frequency energy in free space is:

A.
300 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
B.
3000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
C.
150 kilometres per second (0% chose this)
D.
186 000 kilometres per second (0% chose this)

6-08-05

Adding a series inductance to an antenna would:

A.
increase the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
B.
have little effect (0% chose this)
C.
decrease the resonant frequency (0% chose this)
D.
have no change on the resonant frequency (0% chose this)

6-08-06

The resonant frequency of an antenna may be increased by:

A.
lowering the radiating element (0% chose this)
B.
increasing the height of the radiating element (0% chose this)
C.
shortening the radiating element (0% chose this)
D.
lengthening the radiating element (0% chose this)

6-08-07

The speed of a radio wave:

A.
is infinite in space (0% chose this)
B.
is the same as the speed of light (0% chose this)
C.
is always less than half speed of light (0% chose this)
D.
varies directly with frequency (0% chose this)

6-08-08

At the end of suspended antenna wire, insulators are used. These act to:

A.
limit the electrical length of the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
increase the effective antenna length (0% chose this)
C.
allow the antenna to be more easily held vertically (0% chose this)
D.
prevent any loss of radio waves by the antenna (0% chose this)

6-08-09

To lower the resonant frequency of an antenna, the operator should:

A.
shorten it (0% chose this)
B.
lengthen it (0% chose this)
C.
ground one end (0% chose this)
D.
centre feed it with TV ribbon feeder (0% chose this)

6-08-10

One solution to multiband operation with a shortened radiator is the "trap dipole" or trap vertical. These "traps" are actually:

A.
large wire-wound resistors (0% chose this)
B.
a coil and capacitor in parallel (0% chose this)
C.
coils wrapped around a ferrite rod (0% chose this)
D.
hollow metal cans (0% chose this)

6-08-11

The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 2 MHz is:

A.
360 m (1181 ft) (0% chose this)
B.
150 m (492 ft) (0% chose this)
C.
1500 m (4921 ft) (0% chose this)
D.
30 m (98 ft) (0% chose this)

6-09-01

What is a parasitic beam antenna?

A.
An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from director elements (0% chose this)
B.
An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the feed line (0% chose this)
C.
An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or radiation from a driven element (0% chose this)
D.
An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements (0% chose this)

6-09-02

How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased?

A.
Use traps on the elements (0% chose this)
B.
Use larger diameter elements (0% chose this)
C.
Use tapered-diameter elements (0% chose this)
D.
Use closer element spacing (0% chose this)

6-09-03

If a slightly shorter parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?

A.
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements (0% chose this)
B.
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, toward the parasitic element (0% chose this)
C.
A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground (0% chose this)
D.
The radiation pattern will not be affected (0% chose this)

6-09-04

If a slightly longer parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength away from an HF dipole antenna, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern?

A.
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements (0% chose this)
B.
A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground (0% chose this)
C.
A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, away from the parasitic element, toward the dipole (0% chose this)
D.
The radiation pattern will not be affected (0% chose this)

6-09-05

The property of an antenna, which defines the range of frequencies to which it will respond, is called its:

A.
bandwidth (0% chose this)
B.
front-to-back ratio (0% chose this)
C.
impedance (0% chose this)
D.
polarization (0% chose this)

6-09-06

Approximately how much gain does a half-wave dipole have over an isotropic radiator?

A.
1.5 dB (0% chose this)
B.
3.0 dB (0% chose this)
C.
6.0 dB (0% chose this)
D.
2.1 dB (0% chose this)

6-09-07

What is meant by antenna gain?

A.
The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction (0% chose this)
B.
The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power (0% chose this)
C.
The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (0% chose this)
D.
The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna (0% chose this)

6-09-08

What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

A.
Antenna length divided by the number of elements (0% chose this)
B.
The angle between the half- power radiation points (0% chose this)
C.
The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements (0% chose this)
D.
The frequency range over which the antenna may be expected to perform well (0% chose this)

6-09-09

In free space, what is the radiation characteristic of a half-wave dipole?

A.
Minimum radiation from the ends, maximum broadside (0% chose this)
B.
Maximum radiation from the ends, minimum broadside (0% chose this)
C.
Omnidirectional (0% chose this)
D.
Maximum radiation at 45 degrees to the plane of the antenna (0% chose this)

6-09-10

The gain of an antenna, especially on VHF and above, is quoted in dBi. The "i" in this expression stands for:

A.
isotropic (0% chose this)
B.
ideal (0% chose this)
C.
ionosphere (0% chose this)
D.
interpolated (0% chose this)

6-09-11

The front-to-back ratio of a beam antenna is:

A.
the forward power of the major lobe to the power in the backward direction both being measured at the 3 dB points (0% chose this)
B.
the ratio of the maximum forward power in the major lobe to the maximum backward power radiation (0% chose this)
C.
undefined (0% chose this)
D.
the ratio of the forward power at the 3 dB points to the power radiated in the backward direction (0% chose this)

6-10-01

How do you calculate the length in metres (feet) of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna?

A.
Divide 468 (1532) by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) (0% chose this)
B.
Divide 300 (982) by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) (0% chose this)
C.
Divide 71.5 (234) by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) (0% chose this)
D.
Divide 150 (491) by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) (0% chose this)

6-10-02

If you made a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 21.125 MHz, how long would it be?

A.
3.6 metres (11.8 ft) (0% chose this)
B.
3.36 metres (11.0 ft) (0% chose this)
C.
7.2 metres (23.6 ft) (0% chose this)
D.
6.76 metres (22.2 ft) (0% chose this)

6-10-03

If you made a half-wavelength vertical antenna for 223 MHz, how long would it be?

A.
64 cm (25.2 in) (0% chose this)
B.
128 cm (50.4 in) (0% chose this)
C.
105 cm (41.3 in) (0% chose this)
D.
134.6 cm (53 in) (0% chose this)

6-10-04

Why is a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna better than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for VHF or UHF mobile operations?

A.
A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less corona loss (0% chose this)
B.
A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain (0% chose this)
C.
A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to install on a car (0% chose this)
D.
A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power (0% chose this)

6-10-05

If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy?

A.
Most of it is aimed high into the sky (0% chose this)
B.
Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions (0% chose this)
C.
It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions (0% chose this)
D.
Most of it goes in one direction (0% chose this)

6-10-06

What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground plane antenna?

A.
It increases the radiation angle (0% chose this)
B.
It brings the feed point impedance closer to 300 ohms (0% chose this)
C.
It brings the feed point impedance closer to 50 ohms (0% chose this)
D.
It lowers the radiation angle (0% chose this)

6-10-07

What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?

A.
It increases (0% chose this)
B.
It decreases (0% chose this)
C.
It stays the same (0% chose this)
D.
It approaches zero (0% chose this)

6-10-08

Which of the following transmission lines will give the best match to the base of a quarter-wave ground-plane antenna?

A.
300 ohms balanced feed line (0% chose this)
B.
75 ohms balanced feed line (0% chose this)
C.
300 ohms coaxial cable (0% chose this)
D.
50 ohms coaxial cable (0% chose this)

6-10-09

The main characteristic of a vertical antenna is that it will:

A.
receive signals equally well from all compass points around it (0% chose this)
B.
be very sensitive to signals coming from horizontal antennas (0% chose this)
C.
require few insulators (0% chose this)
D.
be easy to feed with TV ribbon feeder (0% chose this)

6-10-10

Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile vertical antenna?

A.
To tune out capacitive reactance (0% chose this)
B.
To lower the losses (0% chose this)
C.
To lower the Q (0% chose this)
D.
To improve reception (0% chose this)

6-10-11

What is the main reason why so many VHF base and mobile antennas are 5/8 of a wavelength?

A.
The angle of radiation is high giving excellent local coverage (0% chose this)
B.
The angle of radiation is low (0% chose this)
C.
It is easy to match the antenna to the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
It's a convenient length on VHF (0% chose this)

6-11-01

How many directly driven elements do most Yagi antennas have?

A.
None (0% chose this)
B.
Two (0% chose this)
C.
Three (0% chose this)
D.
One (0% chose this)

6-11-02

Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz?

A.
5.21 metres (17 feet) (0% chose this)
B.
10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
C.
20.12 metres (66 feet) (0% chose this)
D.
10.21 metres (33 feet and 6 inches) (0% chose this)

6-11-03

Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz?

A.
5.18 metres (17 feet) (0% chose this)
B.
6.4 metres (21 feet) (0% chose this)
C.
3.2 metres (10.5 feet) (0% chose this)
D.
12.8 metres (42 feet) (0% chose this)

6-11-04

Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz?

A.
4.88 metres (16 feet) (0% chose this)
B.
5.33 metres (17.5 feet) (0% chose this)
C.
10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
D.
2.66 metres (8.75 feet) (0% chose this)

6-11-05

What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

A.
SWR increases (0% chose this)
B.
Weight decreases (0% chose this)
C.
Wind load decreases (0% chose this)
D.
Gain increases (0% chose this)

6-11-06

What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing?

A.
High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth (0% chose this)
B.
High gain, lower loss and a low SWR (0% chose this)
C.
High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance (0% chose this)
D.
Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance (0% chose this)

6-11-07

Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20-metre band?

A.
It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane (0% chose this)
B.
It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna (0% chose this)
C.
It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands (0% chose this)
D.
It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or behind (0% chose this)

6-11-08

What does "antenna front-to- back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

A.
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors (0% chose this)
B.
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction (0% chose this)
C.
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction (0% chose this)
D.
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors (0% chose this)

6-11-09

What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi antenna?

A.
Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements (0% chose this)
B.
Use RG-58 feed line (0% chose this)
C.
Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance from each direction around the antenna (0% chose this)
D.
Avoid using towers higher than 9 metres (30 feet) above the ground (0% chose this)

6-11-10

The spacing between the elements on a three-element Yagi antenna, representing the best overall choice, is _______ of a wavelength.

A.
0.15 (0% chose this)
B.
0.5 (0% chose this)
C.
0.75 (0% chose this)
D.
0.2 (0% chose this)

6-11-11

If the forward gain of a six- element Yagi is about 10 dB, what would the gain of two of these antennas be if they were "stacked"?

A.
7 dB (0% chose this)
B.
13 dB (0% chose this)
C.
20 dB (0% chose this)
D.
10 dB (0% chose this)

6-12-01

If you made a half-wavelength dipole antenna for 28.550 MHz, how long would it be?

A.
10.5 metres (34.37 ft) (0% chose this)
B.
28.55 metres (93.45 ft) (0% chose this)
C.
5.08 metres (16.62 ft) (0% chose this)
D.
10.16 metres (33.26 ft) (0% chose this)

6-12-02

What is one disadvantage of a random wire antenna?

A.
It usually produces vertically polarized radiation (0% chose this)
B.
It must be longer than 1 wavelength (0% chose this)
C.
You may experience RF feedback in your station (0% chose this)
D.
You must use an inverted T matching network for multi-band operation (0% chose this)

6-12-03

What is the low angle radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF antenna installed parallel to the earth?

A.
It is a figure-eight, perpendicular to the antenna (0% chose this)
B.
It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) (0% chose this)
C.
It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one larger lobe on the other side (0% chose this)
D.
It is a figure-eight, off both ends of the antenna (0% chose this)

6-12-04

The impedances in ohms at the feed point of the dipole and folded dipole are, respectively:

A.
73 and 150 (0% chose this)
B.
73 and 300 (0% chose this)
C.
52 and 100 (0% chose this)
D.
52 and 200 (0% chose this)

6-12-05

A dipole transmitting antenna, placed so that the ends are pointing North/South, radiates:

A.
mostly to the South and North (0% chose this)
B.
mostly to the South (0% chose this)
C.
equally in all directions (0% chose this)
D.
mostly to the East and West (0% chose this)

6-12-06

How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna?

A.
It is essentially the same (0% chose this)
B.
It is less than 50% (0% chose this)
C.
It is 0.707 times the bandwidth (0% chose this)
D.
It is greater (0% chose this)

6-12-07

What is a disadvantage of using an antenna equipped with traps?

A.
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
It will radiate harmonics (0% chose this)
C.
It must be neutralized (0% chose this)
D.
It can only be used for one band (0% chose this)

6-12-08

What is an advantage of using a trap antenna?

A.
It may be used for multi- band operation (0% chose this)
B.
It has high directivity at the higher frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
It has high gain (0% chose this)
D.
It minimizes harmonic radiation (0% chose this)

6-12-09

The "doublet antenna" is the most common in the amateur service. If you were to cut this antenna for 3.75 MHz, what would be its approximate length?

A.
38 meters (125 ft.) (0% chose this)
B.
32 meters (105 ft.) (0% chose this)
C.
45 meters (145 ft.) (0% chose this)
D.
75 meters (245 ft.) (0% chose this)

6-13-01

What is a cubical quad antenna?

A.
A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
B.
A vertical conductor 1/4- electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom (0% chose this)
C.
Two or more parallel four- sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)
D.
Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately 1/2- electrical wavelength long (0% chose this)

6-13-02

What is a delta loop antenna?

A.
A type of cubical quad antenna, except with triangular elements rather than square (0% chose this)
B.
A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding (0% chose this)
C.
An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape (0% chose this)
D.
An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form (0% chose this)

6-13-03

Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 21.4 MHz?

A.
3.54 metres (11.7 feet) (0% chose this)
B.
0.36 metres (1.17 feet) (0% chose this)
C.
14.33 metres (47 feet) (0% chose this)
D.
143 metres (469 feet) (0% chose this)

6-13-04

Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 14.3 MHz?

A.
21.43 metres (70.3 feet) (0% chose this)
B.
5.36 metres (17.6 feet) (0% chose this)
C.
53.34 metres (175 feet) (0% chose this)
D.
7.13 metres (23.4 feet) (0% chose this)

6-13-05

Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz?

A.
2.67 metres (8.75 feet) (0% chose this)
B.
7.13 metres (23.4 feet) (0% chose this)
C.
10.67 metres (35 feet) (0% chose this)
D.
3.5 metres (11.5 feet) (0% chose this)

6-13-06

Which statement about two- element delta loops and quad antennas is true?

A.
They perform very well only at HF (0% chose this)
B.
They compare favorably with a threeelement Yagi (0% chose this)
C.
They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire (0% chose this)
D.
They perform poorly above HF (0% chose this)

6-13-07

Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation characteristics of a cubical quad antenna?

A.
The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes (0% chose this)
B.
The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less directivity in the vertical plane (0% chose this)
C.
The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more directivity in the vertical plane (0% chose this)
D.
The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes (0% chose this)

6-13-08

Moving the feed point of a multielement quad antenna from a side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect?

A.
It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal (0% chose this)
B.
It will significantly decrease the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)
C.
It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical (0% chose this)
D.
It will significantly increase the antenna feed point impedance (0% chose this)

6-13-09

What does the term "antenna front-toback ratio" mean in reference to a delta loop antenna?

A.
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors (0% chose this)
B.
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction (0% chose this)
C.
The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction (0% chose this)
D.
The number of directors versus the number of reflectors (0% chose this)

6-13-10

The cubical "quad" or "quad" antenna consists of two or more square loops of wire. The driven element has an approximate overall length of:

A.
three-quarters of a wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
one wavelength (0% chose this)
C.
two wavelengths (0% chose this)
D.
one-half wavelength (0% chose this)

6-13-11

The delta loop antenna consists of two or more triangular structures mounted on a boom. The overall length of the driven element is approximately:

A.
one-quarter of a wavelength (0% chose this)
B.
one wavelength (0% chose this)
C.
two wavelengths (0% chose this)
D.
one-half of a wavelength (0% chose this)

7-01-01

What type of propagation usually occurs from one hand- held VHF transceiver to another nearby?

A.
Tunnel propagation (0% chose this)
B.
Sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
C.
Auroral propagation (0% chose this)
D.
Line-of-sight propagation (0% chose this)

7-01-02

How does the range of sky-wave propagation compare to ground- wave propagation?

A.
It is much shorter (0% chose this)
B.
It is about the same (0% chose this)
C.
It depends on the weather (0% chose this)
D.
It is much longer (0% chose this)

7-01-03

When a signal is returned to earth by the ionosphere, what is this called?

A.
Tropospheric propagation (0% chose this)
B.
Ground-wave propagation (0% chose this)
C.
Sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
D.
Earth-moon-earth propagation (0% chose this)

7-01-04

How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible horizon?

A.
By direct wave (0% chose this)
B.
By sky wave (0% chose this)
C.
By plane wave (0% chose this)
D.
By geometric wave (0% chose this)

7-01-05

Skywave is another name for:

A.
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
B.
tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
C.
ground wave (0% chose this)
D.
inverted wave (0% chose this)

7-01-06

That portion of the radiation which is directly affected by the surface of the earth is called:

A.
tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
B.
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
C.
inverted wave (0% chose this)
D.
ground wave (0% chose this)

7-01-07

At HF frequencies, line-of-sight transmission between two stations uses mainly the:

A.
troposphere (0% chose this)
B.
skip wave (0% chose this)
C.
ionosphere (0% chose this)
D.
ground wave (0% chose this)

7-01-08

The distance travelled by ground waves:

A.
depends on the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
B.
is more at higher frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
is less at higher frequencies (0% chose this)
D.
is the same for all frequencies (0% chose this)

7-01-09

The radio wave which follows a path from the transmitter to the ionosphere and back to earth is known correctly as the:

A.
F layer (0% chose this)
B.
surface wave (0% chose this)
C.
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
D.
skip wave (0% chose this)

7-01-10

Reception of high frequency (HF) radio waves beyond 4000 km is generally possible by:

A.
ground wave (0% chose this)
B.
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)
C.
skip wave (0% chose this)
D.
surface wave (0% chose this)

7-02-01

What causes the ionosphere to form?

A.
Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
B.
Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)
C.
Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere (0% chose this)
D.
Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere (0% chose this)

7-02-02

What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere?

A.
Microwave (0% chose this)
B.
Ionized particle (0% chose this)
C.
Ultraviolet (0% chose this)
D.
Thermal (0% chose this)

7-02-03

Which ionospheric region is closest to the earth?

A.
The E region (0% chose this)
B.
The D region (0% chose this)
C.
The F region (0% chose this)
D.
The A region (0% chose this)

7-02-04

Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long distance radio-wave propagation?

A.
The F2 region (0% chose this)
B.
The F1 region (0% chose this)
C.
The D region (0% chose this)
D.
The E region (0% chose this)

7-02-05

What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist only in the daytime?

A.
Troposphere and stratosphere (0% chose this)
B.
Electrostatic and electromagnetic (0% chose this)
C.
D and E (0% chose this)
D.
F1 and F2 (0% chose this)

7-02-06

When is the ionosphere most ionized?

A.
Dawn (0% chose this)
B.
Midnight (0% chose this)
C.
Midday (0% chose this)
D.
Dusk (0% chose this)

7-02-07

When is the ionosphere least ionized?

A.
Shortly before dawn (0% chose this)
B.
Just after noon (0% chose this)
C.
Just after dusk (0% chose this)
D.
Shortly before midnight (0% chose this)

7-02-08

Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio-wave propagation?

A.
Because it exists only at night (0% chose this)
B.
Because it is the lowest ionospheric region (0% chose this)
C.
Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions (0% chose this)
D.
Because it is the highest ionospheric region (0% chose this)

7-02-09

What is the main reason the 160, 80 and 40 metre amateur bands tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours?

A.
Because of auroral propagation (0% chose this)
B.
Because of D-region absorption (0% chose this)
C.
Because of magnetic flux (0% chose this)
D.
Because of a lack of activity (0% chose this)

7-02-10

During the day, one of the ionospheric layers splits into two parts called:

A.
D1 & D2 (0% chose this)
B.
E1 & E2 (0% chose this)
C.
A & B (0% chose this)
D.
F1 & F2 (0% chose this)

7-02-11

The position of the E layer in the ionosphere is:

A.
below the D layer (0% chose this)
B.
below the F layer (0% chose this)
C.
sporadic (0% chose this)
D.
above the F layer (0% chose this)

7-03-01

What is a skip zone?

A.
An area which is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
B.
An area covered by sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
C.
An area which is too far away for ground-wave propagation, but too close for sky-wave propagation (0% chose this)
D.
An area covered by ground- wave propagation (0% chose this)

7-03-02

What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

A.
None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation (0% chose this)
B.
2160 km (1200 miles) (0% chose this)
C.
4500km (2500 miles) (0% chose this)
D.
325 km (180 miles) (0% chose this)

7-03-03

What is the maximum distance along the earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

A.
2160 km (1200 miles) (0% chose this)
B.
325 km (180 miles) (0% chose this)
C.
4500 km (2500 miles) (0% chose this)
D.
None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation (0% chose this)

7-03-04

Skip zone is:

A.
a zone of silence caused by lost sky waves (0% chose this)
B.
a zone between any two refracted waves (0% chose this)
C.
a zone between the end of the ground wave and the point where the first refracted wave returns to earth (0% chose this)
D.
a zone between the antenna and the return of the first refracted wave (0% chose this)

7-03-05

The distance to Europe from your location is approximately 5000 km. What sort of propagation is the most likely to be involved?

A.
sporadic "E" (0% chose this)
B.
back scatter (0% chose this)
C.
multihop (0% chose this)
D.
tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)

7-03-06

For radio signals, the skip distance is determined by the:

A.
power fed to the final (0% chose this)
B.
angle of radiation (0% chose this)
C.
type of transmitting antenna used (0% chose this)
D.
height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation (0% chose this)

7-03-07

The distance from the transmitter to the nearest point where the sky wave returns to the earth is called the:

A.
skip zone (0% chose this)
B.
angle of radiation (0% chose this)
C.
skip distance (0% chose this)
D.
maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)

7-03-08

Skip distance is the:

A.
the minimum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
B.
the maximum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
the minimum distance reached by a ground-wave signal (0% chose this)
D.
the maximum distance a signal will travel by both a ground wave and reflected wave (0% chose this)

7-03-09

Skip distance is a term associated with signals from the ionosphere. Skip effects are due to:

A.
reflection and refraction from the ionosphere (0% chose this)
B.
selective fading of local signals (0% chose this)
C.
high gain antennas being used (0% chose this)
D.
local cloud cover (0% chose this)

7-03-10

The skip distance of a sky wave will be greatest when the:

A.
polarization is vertical (0% chose this)
B.
ionosphere is most densely ionized (0% chose this)
C.
angle between ground and radiation is smallest (0% chose this)
D.
signal given out is strongest (0% chose this)

7-03-11

If the height of the reflecting layer of the ionosphere increases, the skip distance of a high frequency (HF) transmission:

A.
stays the same (0% chose this)
B.
varies regularly (0% chose this)
C.
becomes greater (0% chose this)
D.
decreases (0% chose this)

7-04-01

What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower frequency HF signals in the daytime?

A.
It absorbs the signals (0% chose this)
B.
It bends the radio waves out into space (0% chose this)
C.
It refracts the radio waves back to earth (0% chose this)
D.
It has little or no effect on 80-metre radio waves (0% chose this)

7-04-02

What causes the ionosphere to absorb radio waves?

A.
The presence of ionized clouds in the E region (0% chose this)
B.
The ionization of the D region (0% chose this)
C.
The splitting of the F region (0% chose this)
D.
The weather below the ionosphere (0% chose this)

7-04-03

Two or more parts of the radio wave follow different paths during propagation and this may result in phase differences at the receiver. This "change" at the receiver is called:

A.
fading (0% chose this)
B.
baffling (0% chose this)
C.
absorption (0% chose this)
D.
skip (0% chose this)

7-04-04

A change or variation in signal strength at the antenna, caused by differences in path lengths, is called:

A.
absorption (0% chose this)
B.
fluctuation (0% chose this)
C.
path loss (0% chose this)
D.
fading (0% chose this)

7-04-05

When a transmitted radio signal reaches a station by a one-hop and two-hop skip path, small changes in the ionosphere can cause:

A.
consistent fading of received signal (0% chose this)
B.
consistently stronger signals (0% chose this)
C.
variations in signal strength (0% chose this)
D.
a change in the ground-wave signal (0% chose this)

7-04-06

The usual effect of ionospheric storms is to:

A.
produce extreme weather changes (0% chose this)
B.
cause a fade-out of sky- wave signals (0% chose this)
C.
prevent communications by ground wave (0% chose this)
D.
increase the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)

7-04-07

On the VHF and UHF bands, polarization of the receiving antenna is very important in relation to the transmitting antenna, yet on HF bands it is relatively unimportant. Why is that so?

A.
The ionosphere can change the polarization of the signal from moment to moment (0% chose this)
B.
The ground wave and the sky wave continually shift the polarization (0% chose this)
C.
Anomalies in the earth's magnetic field produce a profound effect on HF polarization (0% chose this)
D.
Greater selectivity is possible with HF receivers making changes in polarization redundant (0% chose this)

7-04-08

What causes selective fading?

A.
Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station (0% chose this)
B.
Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station (0% chose this)
C.
Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations (0% chose this)
D.
Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly before sunrise and sunset (0% chose this)

7-04-09

How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading?

A.
It is the same for both wide and narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)
B.
It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths (0% chose this)
C.
Only the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect (0% chose this)
D.
It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths (0% chose this)

7-04-10

Polarization change often takes place on radio waves that are propagated over long distances. Which of these does not cause polarization change?

A.
Parabolic interaction (0% chose this)
B.
Reflections (0% chose this)
C.
Passage through magnetic fields (Faraday rotation) (0% chose this)
D.
Refractions (0% chose this)

7-04-11

Reflection of a SSB transmission from the ionosphere causes:

A.
little or no phase-shift distortion (0% chose this)
B.
phase-shift distortion (0% chose this)
C.
signal cancellation at the receiver (0% chose this)
D.
a high-pitch squeal at the receiver (0% chose this)

7-05-01

How do sunspots change the ionization of the atmosphere?

A.
The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization (0% chose this)
B.
The more sunspots there are, the less the ionization (0% chose this)
C.
Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero (0% chose this)
D.
They have no effect (0% chose this)

7-05-02

How long is an average sunspot cycle?

A.
17 years (0% chose this)
B.
5 years (0% chose this)
C.
11 years (0% chose this)
D.
7 years (0% chose this)

7-05-03

What is solar flux?

A.
A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun (0% chose this)
B.
The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth (0% chose this)
C.
The radio energy emitted by the sun (0% chose this)
D.
The density of the sun's magnetic field (0% chose this)

7-05-04

What is the solar-flux index?

A.
Another name for the American sunspot number (0% chose this)
B.
A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months (0% chose this)
C.
A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency (0% chose this)
D.
A measure of solar activity that is taken annually (0% chose this)

7-05-05

What influences all radiocommunication beyond ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges?

A.
The F2 region of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
B.
The F1 region of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
Solar activity (0% chose this)
D.
Lunar tidal effects (0% chose this)

7-05-06

Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation?

A.
Subaudible and audio-frequency emissions (0% chose this)
B.
Polar region and equatorial emissions (0% chose this)
C.
Infra-red and gamma-ray emissions (0% chose this)
D.
Electromagnetic and particle emissions (0% chose this)

7-05-07

When sunspot numbers are high, how is the ionosphere affected?

A.
Frequencies up to 40 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication (0% chose this)
B.
High frequency radio signals are absorbed (0% chose this)
C.
Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication (0% chose this)
D.
High frequency radio signals become weak and distorted (0% chose this)

7-05-08

All communication frequencies throughout the spectrum are affected in varying degrees by the:

A.
ionosphere (0% chose this)
B.
aurora borealis (0% chose this)
C.
atmospheric conditions (0% chose this)
D.
sun (0% chose this)

7-05-09

Average duration of a solar cycle is:

A.
11 years (0% chose this)
B.
3 years (0% chose this)
C.
6 years (0% chose this)
D.
1 year (0% chose this)

7-05-10

The ability of the ionosphere to reflect high frequency radio signals depends on:

A.
the amount of solar radiation (0% chose this)
B.
the power of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
C.
the receiver sensitivity (0% chose this)
D.
upper atmosphere weather conditions (0% chose this)

7-05-11

Propagation cycles have a period of approximately 11:

A.
years (0% chose this)
B.
months (0% chose this)
C.
days (0% chose this)
D.
centuries (0% chose this)

7-06-01

What happens to signals higher in frequency than the critical frequency?

A.
They pass through the ionosphere (0% chose this)
B.
They are absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be below the maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
D.
They are reflected back to their source (0% chose this)

7-06-02

What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?

A.
The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly ultraviolet (0% chose this)
B.
The temperature of the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere (0% chose this)
D.
The type of weather just below the ionosphere (0% chose this)

7-06-03

What does maximum usable frequency mean?

A.
The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination (0% chose this)
B.
The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
D.
The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination (0% chose this)

7-06-04

What can be done at an amateur station to continue HF communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance?

A.
Try a higher frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Try the other sideband (0% chose this)
C.
Try a different antenna polarization (0% chose this)
D.
Try a different frequency shift (0% chose this)

7-06-05

What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support 28 MHz propagation between your station and western Europe?

A.
Listen for signals on the 10-metre beacon frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Listen for signals on the 20-metre beacon frequency (0% chose this)
C.
Listen for signals on the 39-metre broadcast frequency (0% chose this)
D.
Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz (0% chose this)

7-06-06

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?

A.
They are changed to a frequency above the MUF (0% chose this)
B.
They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere (0% chose this)
C.
They are bent back to the earth (0% chose this)
D.
They pass through the ionosphere (0% chose this)

7-06-07

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-metre band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

A.
Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle (0% chose this)
B.
Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle (0% chose this)
C.
At any point in the solar cycle (0% chose this)
D.
At the summer solstice (0% chose this)

7-06-08

If we transmit a signal, the frequency of which is so high we no longer receive a reflection from the ionosphere, the signal frequency is above the:

A.
skip distance (0% chose this)
B.
maximum usable frequency (0% chose this)
C.
speed of light (0% chose this)
D.
sunspot frequency (0% chose this)

7-06-09

Communication on the 80 metre band is generally most difficult during:

A.
daytime in summer (0% chose this)
B.
evening in winter (0% chose this)
C.
evening in summer (0% chose this)
D.
daytime in winter (0% chose this)

7-06-10

The optimum working frequency provides the best long range HF communication. Compared with the maximum usable frequency (MUF), it is usually:

A.
double the MUF (0% chose this)
B.
half the MUF (0% chose this)
C.
slightly lower (0% chose this)
D.
slightly higher (0% chose this)

7-06-11

During summer daytime, which bands are the most difficult for communications beyond ground wave?

A.
160 and 80 metres (0% chose this)
B.
40 metres (0% chose this)
C.
30 metres (0% chose this)
D.
20 metres (0% chose this)

7-07-01

Which ionospheric region most affects sky-wave propagation on the 6 metre band?

A.
The F2 region (0% chose this)
B.
The F1 region (0% chose this)
C.
The E region (0% chose this)
D.
The D region (0% chose this)

7-07-02

What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-metre radio waves?

A.
It causes them to travel shorter distances (0% chose this)
B.
It garbles the signal (0% chose this)
C.
It reverses the sideband of the signal (0% chose this)
D.
It lets you contact stations farther away (0% chose this)

7-07-03

What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?

A.
Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations (0% chose this)
B.
An aurora to the north (0% chose this)
C.
A temperature inversion (0% chose this)
D.
A very low pressure area (0% chose this)

7-07-04

That portion of the radiation kept close to the earth's surface due to bending in the atmosphere is called the:

A.
inverted wave (0% chose this)
B.
ground wave (0% chose this)
C.
tropospheric wave (0% chose this)
D.
ionospheric wave (0% chose this)

7-07-05

What is a sporadic-E condition?

A.
Patches of dense ionization at E-region height (0% chose this)
B.
Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region height (0% chose this)
C.
Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variations (0% chose this)
D.
A brief decrease in VHF signals caused by sunspot variations (0% chose this)

7-07-06

On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed?

A.
160 metres (0% chose this)
B.
20 metres (0% chose this)
C.
6 metres (0% chose this)
D.
2 metres (0% chose this)

7-07-07

In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?

A.
East (0% chose this)
B.
North (0% chose this)
C.
West (0% chose this)
D.
South (0% chose this)

7-07-08

Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?

A.
At F-region height (0% chose this)
B.
At E-region height (0% chose this)
C.
In the equatorial band (0% chose this)
D.
At D-region height (0% chose this)

7-07-09

Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?

A.
RTTY and AM (0% chose this)
B.
FM and CW (0% chose this)
C.
CW and SSB (0% chose this)
D.
SSB and FM (0% chose this)

7-07-10

Excluding enhanced propagation modes, what is the approximate range of normal VHF tropospheric propagation?

A.
2400 km (1500 miles) (0% chose this)
B.
800 km (500 miles) (0% chose this)
C.
3200 km (2000 miles) (0% chose this)
D.
1600 km (1000 miles) (0% chose this)

7-07-11

What effect is responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 800 km (500 miles)?

A.
Faraday rotation (0% chose this)
B.
Tropospheric ducting (0% chose this)
C.
D-region absorption (0% chose this)
D.
Moon bounce (0% chose this)

7-08-01

What kind of propagation would best be used by two stations within each other's skip zone on a certain frequency?

A.
Scatter-mode (0% chose this)
B.
Sky-wave (0% chose this)
C.
Ducting (0% chose this)
D.
Ground-wave (0% chose this)

7-08-02

If you receive a weak, distorted signal from a distance, and close to the maximum usable frequency, what type of propagation is probably occurring?

A.
Ground-wave (0% chose this)
B.
Line-of-sight (0% chose this)
C.
Scatter (0% chose this)
D.
Ducting (0% chose this)

7-08-03

What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

A.
Reversed modulation (0% chose this)
B.
A wavering sound (0% chose this)
C.
Reversed sidebands (0% chose this)
D.
High intelligibility (0% chose this)

7-08-04

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

A.
Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio-wave paths (0% chose this)
B.
Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field (0% chose this)
C.
Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal (0% chose this)
D.
The state of the E-region at the point of refraction (0% chose this)

7-08-05

Why are HF scatter signals usually weak?

A.
Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
B.
Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone (0% chose this)
C.
The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)
D.
Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy (0% chose this)

7-08-06

What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal skywave propagation?

A.
Short-path skip (0% chose this)
B.
Sporadic-E skip (0% chose this)
C.
Scatter (0% chose this)
D.
Ground wave (0% chose this)

7-08-07

When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur?

A.
When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is high (0% chose this)
B.
At night (0% chose this)
C.
When the F1 and F2 regions are combined (0% chose this)
D.
When communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable frequency (MUF) (0% chose this)

7-08-08

Which of the following is not a scatter mode?

A.
Meteor scatter (0% chose this)
B.
Tropospheric scatter (0% chose this)
C.
Ionospheric scatter (0% chose this)
D.
Absorption scatter (0% chose this)

7-08-09

Meteor scatter is most effective on what band?

A.
40 metres (0% chose this)
B.
6 metres (0% chose this)
C.
15 metres (0% chose this)
D.
160 metres (0% chose this)

7-08-10

Which of the following is not a scatter mode?

A.
Side scatter (0% chose this)
B.
Back scatter (0% chose this)
C.
Inverted scatter (0% chose this)
D.
Forward scatter (0% chose this)

7-08-11

In which frequency range is meteor scatter most effective for extended-range communication?

A.
30 - 100 MHz (0% chose this)
B.
10 - 30 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
3 - 10 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
100 - 300 MHz (0% chose this)

8-01-01

What is meant by receiver overload?

A.
Interference caused by turning the volume up too high (0% chose this)
B.
Too much current from the power supply (0% chose this)
C.
Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Too much voltage from the power supply (0% chose this)

8-01-02

What is one way to tell if radio frequency interference to a receiver is caused by front-end overload?

A.
If grounding the receiver makes the problem worse (0% chose this)
B.
If connecting a low pass filter to the receiver greatly cuts down the interference (0% chose this)
C.
If the interference is about the same no matter what frequency is used for the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
If connecting a low pass filter to the transmitter greatly cuts down the interference (0% chose this)

8-01-03

If a neighbour reports television interference whenever you transmit, no matter what band you use, what is probably the cause of the interference?

A.
Incorrect antenna length (0% chose this)
B.
Receiver VR tube discharge (0% chose this)
C.
Receiver overload (0% chose this)
D.
Too little transmitter harmonic suppression (0% chose this)

8-01-04

What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission?

A.
High-pass (0% chose this)
B.
Low-pass (0% chose this)
C.
Band-pass (0% chose this)
D.
No filter (0% chose this)

8-01-05

When the signal from a transmitter overloads the audio stages of a broadcast receiver, the transmitted signal:

A.
is distorted on voice peaks (0% chose this)
B.
can appear wherever the receiver is tuned (0% chose this)
C.
appears only on one frequency (0% chose this)
D.
appears only when a station is tuned (0% chose this)

8-01-06

Cross-modulation of a broadcast receiver by a nearby transmitter would be noticed in the receiver as:

A.
interference only when a broadcast signal is tuned (0% chose this)
B.
the undesired signal in the background of the desired signal (0% chose this)
C.
distortion on transmitted voice peaks (0% chose this)
D.
interference continuously across the dial (0% chose this)

8-01-07

What is cross-modulation interference?

A.
Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type (0% chose this)
B.
Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver reamplifier (0% chose this)
C.
Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal (0% chose this)
D.
Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal (0% chose this)

8-01-08

What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received?

A.
Receiver quieting (0% chose this)
B.
Cross-modulation interference (0% chose this)
C.
Capture effect (0% chose this)
D.
Intermodulation distortion (0% chose this)

8-01-09

What is the result of cross-modulation?

A.
Receiver quieting (0% chose this)
B.
A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals (0% chose this)
C.
Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal (0% chose this)

8-01-10

If a television receiver suffers from cross-modulation when a nearby amateur transmitter is operating at 14 MHz, which of the following cures might be effective?

A.
A low pass filter attached to the antenna output of the transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
A high pass filter attached to the antenna output of the transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
A high pass filter attached to the antenna input of the television (0% chose this)
D.
A low pass filter attached to the antenna input of the television (0% chose this)

8-01-11

How can cross-modulation be reduced?

A.
By installing a suitable filter at the receiver (0% chose this)
B.
By using a better antenna (0% chose this)
C.
By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the AF gain (0% chose this)
D.
By adjusting the passband tuning (0% chose this)

8-02-01

What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate audio-frequency interference to home entertainment systems?

A.
Bypass resistors (0% chose this)
B.
Metal-oxide varistors (0% chose this)
C.
Bypass capacitors (0% chose this)
D.
Bypass inductors (0% chose this)

8-02-02

What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone?

A.
Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use (0% chose this)
C.
Ask the telephone company to install RFI filters (0% chose this)
D.
Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment (0% chose this)

8-02-03

What sound is heard from a publicaddress system if audio rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission occurs?

A.
Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals (0% chose this)
B.
On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)
C.
Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals (0% chose this)
D.
A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air (0% chose this)

8-02-04

What sound is heard from a publicaddress system if audio rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs?

A.
Audible, possibly distorted speech (0% chose this)
B.
Muffled, severely distorted speech (0% chose this)
C.
A steady whistling (0% chose this)
D.
On-and-off humming or clicking (0% chose this)

8-02-05

How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of your transmitter's signals?

A.
By installing bypass capacitors on all power supply rectifiers (0% chose this)
B.
By using CW emission only (0% chose this)
C.
By ensuring that all station equipment is properly grounded (0% chose this)
D.
By using a solid-state transmitter (0% chose this)

8-02-06

An amateur transmitter is being heard across the entire dial of a broadcast receiver. The receiver is most probably suffering from:

A.
harmonics interference from the transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
cross-modulation or audio rectification in the receiver (0% chose this)
C.
poor image rejection (0% chose this)
D.
splatter from the transmitter (0% chose this)

8-02-07

Cross-modulation is usually caused by:

A.
rectification of strong signals (0% chose this)
B.
harmonics generated at the transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
improper filtering in the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
lack of receiver sensitivity and selectivity (0% chose this)

8-02-08

What device can be used to minimize the effect of RF pickup by audio wires connected to stereo speakers, intercom amplifiers, telephones, etc.?

A.
Magnet (0% chose this)
B.
Attenuator (0% chose this)
C.
Diode (0% chose this)
D.
Ferrite core (0% chose this)

8-02-09

Stereo speaker leads often act as antennas to pick up RF signals. What is one method you can use to minimize this effect?

A.
Shorten the leads (0% chose this)
B.
Lengthen the leads (0% chose this)
C.
Connect the speaker through an audio attenuator (0% chose this)
D.
Connect a diode across the speaker (0% chose this)

8-02-10

One method of preventing RF from entering a stereo set through the speaker leads is to wrap each of the speaker leads around a:

A.
copper bar (0% chose this)
B.
iron bar (0% chose this)
C.
ferrite core (0% chose this)
D.
wooden dowel (0% chose this)

8-02-11

Stereo amplifiers often have long leads which pick up transmitted signals because they act as:

A.
transmitting antennas (0% chose this)
B.
RF attenuators (0% chose this)
C.
frequency discriminators (0% chose this)
D.
receiving antennas (0% chose this)

8-03-01

How can you prevent key-clicks?

A.
By increasing power (0% chose this)
B.
By using a key-click filter (0% chose this)
C.
By using a better power supply (0% chose this)
D.
By sending CW more slowly (0% chose this)

8-03-02

If someone tells you that signals from your hand-held transceiver are interfering with other signals on a frequency near yours, what may be the cause?

A.
Your hand-held may be transmitting spurious emissions (0% chose this)
B.
You may need a power amplifier for your hand-held (0% chose this)
C.
Your hand-held may have chirp from weak batteries (0% chose this)
D.
You may need to turn the volume up on your hand-held (0% chose this)

8-03-03

If your transmitter sends signals outside the band where it is transmitting, what is this called?

A.
Side tones (0% chose this)
B.
Transmitter chirping (0% chose this)
C.
Spurious emissions (0% chose this)
D.
Off-frequency emissions (0% chose this)

8-03-04

What problem may occur if your transmitter is operated without the cover and other shielding in place?

A.
It may transmit a weak signal (0% chose this)
B.
It may transmit spurious emissions (0% chose this)
C.
It may interfere with other stations operating near its frequency (0% chose this)
D.
It may transmit a chirpy signal (0% chose this)

8-03-05

In Morse code transmission, local RF interference (key-clicks) is produced by:

A.
the making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key (0% chose this)
B.
frequency shifting caused by poor voltage regulation (0% chose this)
C.
the power amplifier, and is caused by high frequency parasitics (0% chose this)
D.
poor waveshaping caused by a poor voltage regulator (0% chose this)

8-03-06

Key-clicks, heard from a Morse code transmitter at a distant receiver, are the result of:

A.
power supply hum modulating the carrier (0% chose this)
B.
too sharp rise and decay times of the carrier (0% chose this)
C.
sparks emitting RF from the key contacts (0% chose this)
D.
changes in oscillator frequency on keying (0% chose this)

8-03-07

In a Morse code transmission, local RF interference (key-clicks) is produced by:

A.
shift in frequency when keying the transmitter (0% chose this)
B.
sparking at the key contacts (0% chose this)
C.
sudden movement in the receiver loudspeaker (0% chose this)
D.
poor shaping of the waveform (0% chose this)

8-03-08

Key-clicks can be suppressed by:

A.
inserting a choke and a capacitor at the key (0% chose this)
B.
turning the receiver down (0% chose this)
C.
regulating the oscillator supply voltage (0% chose this)
D.
using a choke in the RF power output (0% chose this)

8-03-09

A parasitic oscillation:

A.
is generated by parasitic elements of a Yagi beam (0% chose this)
B.
does not cause any radio interference (0% chose this)
C.
is produced in a transmitter oscillator stage (0% chose this)
D.
is an unwanted signal developed in a transmitter (0% chose this)

8-03-10

Parasitic oscillations in the RF power amplifier stage of a transmitter may be found:

A.
at high or low frequencies (0% chose this)
B.
on harmonic frequencies (0% chose this)
C.
at high frequencies only (0% chose this)
D.
at low frequencies only (0% chose this)

8-03-11

Transmitter RF amplifiers can generate parasitic oscillations:

A.
on VHF frequencies only (0% chose this)
B.
on the transmitter fundamental frequency (0% chose this)
C.
on either side of the transmitter frequency (0% chose this)
D.
on harmonics of the transmitter frequency (0% chose this)

8-04-01

If a neighbour reports television interference on one or two channels only when you transmit on 15 metres, what is probably the cause of the interference?

A.
De ionization of the ionosphere near your neighbour's TV antenna (0% chose this)
B.
Harmonic radiation from your transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
TV receiver front-end overload (0% chose this)
D.
Too much low pass filtering on the transmitter (0% chose this)

8-04-02

What is meant by harmonic radiation?

A.
Unwanted signals at frequencies which are multiples of the fundamental (chosen) frequency (0% chose this)
B.
Unwanted signals that are combined with a 60-Hz hum (0% chose this)
C.
Unwanted signals caused by sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
Signals which cause skip propagation to occur (0% chose this)

8-04-03

Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur station not wanted?

A.
It uses large amounts of electric power (0% chose this)
B.
It may cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters (0% chose this)
C.
It may cause auroras in the air (0% chose this)
D.
It may cause interference to other stations and may result in out-of-band signals (0% chose this)

8-04-04

What type of interference may come from a multi-band antenna connected to a poorly tuned transmitter?

A.
Parasitic excitation (0% chose this)
B.
Harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
C.
Intermodulation (0% chose this)
D.
Auroral distortion (0% chose this)

8-04-05

If you are told your station was heard on 21 375 kHz, but at the time you were operating on 7125 kHz, what is one reason this could happen?

A.
Your transmitter's power-supply filter choke was bad (0% chose this)
B.
You were sending CW too fast (0% chose this)
C.
Your transmitter was radiating harmonic signals (0% chose this)
D.
Your transmitter's power-supply filter capacitor was bad (0% chose this)

8-04-06

What causes splatter interference?

A.
Keying a transmitter too fast (0% chose this)
B.
Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent back to its input circuit (0% chose this)
C.
The transmitting antenna is the wrong length (0% chose this)
D.
Overmodulation of a transmitter (0% chose this)

8-04-07

Your amateur radio transmitter appears to be creating interference to the television on channel 3 (60-66 MHz) when you are transmitting on the 15 metre band. Other channels are not affected. The most likely cause is:

A.
no high-pass filter on the TV (0% chose this)
B.
a bad ground at the transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
harmonic radiation from the transmitter (0% chose this)
D.
front-end overload of the TV (0% chose this)

8-04-08

One possible cause of TV interference by harmonics from an SSB transmitter is from "flat topping" — driving the final amplifier into non- linear operation. The most appropriate remedy for this is:

A.
retune transmitter output (0% chose this)
B.
use another antenna (0% chose this)
C.
reduce microphone gain (0% chose this)
D.
reduce oscillator output (0% chose this)

8-04-09

In a transmitter, excessive harmonics are produced by:

A.
low SWR (0% chose this)
B.
resonant circuits (0% chose this)
C.
a linear amplifier (0% chose this)
D.
overdriven stages (0% chose this)

8-04-10

An interfering signal from a transmitter is found to have a frequency of 57 MHz (TV Channel 2 is 54 - 60 MHz). This signal could be the:

A.
crystal oscillator operating on its fundamental (0% chose this)
B.
seventh harmonic of an 80 metre transmission (0% chose this)
C.
second harmonic of a 10 metre transmission (0% chose this)
D.
third harmonic of a 15 metre transmission (0% chose this)

8-04-11

Harmonics may be produced in the RF power amplifier of a transmitter if:

A.
excessive drive signal is applied to it (0% chose this)
B.
the output tank circuit is not correctly tuned (0% chose this)
C.
the oscillator frequency is unstable (0% chose this)
D.
modulation is applied to more than one stage (0% chose this)

8-05-01

What type of filter might be connected to an amateur HF transmitter to cut down on harmonic radiation?

A.
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
B.
A key-click filter (0% chose this)
C.
A high pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
A CW filter (0% chose this)

8-05-02

Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low pass filter in their RF output circuits?

A.
To reduce fundamental radiation (0% chose this)
B.
To reduce low frequency interference to other amateurs (0% chose this)
C.
To reduce harmonic radiation (0% chose this)
D.
To reduce RF energy below a cut-off point (0% chose this)

8-05-03

What circuit blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit?

A.
A high pass filter (0% chose this)
B.
An input filter (0% chose this)
C.
A low pass filter (0% chose this)
D.
A band pass filter (0% chose this)

8-05-04

What should be the impedance of a low pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

A.
Substantially lower (0% chose this)
B.
Twice the transmission line impedance (0% chose this)
C.
About the same (0% chose this)
D.
Substantially higher (0% chose this)

8-05-05

In order to reduce the harmonic output of a high frequency (HF) transmitter, which of the following filters should be installed at the transmitter?

A.
Band pass (0% chose this)
B.
High pass (0% chose this)
C.
Rejection (0% chose this)
D.
Low pass (0% chose this)

8-05-06

To reduce harmonic output from a transmitter, you would put a _______ in the transmission line as close to the transmitter as possible.

A.
high pass filter (0% chose this)
B.
low pass filter (0% chose this)
C.
band reject filter (0% chose this)
D.
wave trap (0% chose this)

8-05-07

To reduce energy from an HF transmitter getting into a television set, you would place a _______ as close to the TV as possible.

A.
low pass filter (0% chose this)
B.
wave trap (0% chose this)
C.
band reject filter (0% chose this)
D.
high pass filter (0% chose this)

8-05-08

A band pass filter will:

A.
attenuate high frequencies but not low (0% chose this)
B.
pass frequencies each side of a band (0% chose this)
C.
allow only certain frequencies through (0% chose this)
D.
stop frequencies in a certain band (0% chose this)

8-05-09

A band reject filter will:

A.
allow only two frequencies through (0% chose this)
B.
pass frequencies each side of a band (0% chose this)
C.
pass frequencies below 100 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
stop frequencies each side of a band (0% chose this)

8-05-10

A high pass filter would normally be fitted:

A.
between microphone and speech amplifier (0% chose this)
B.
at the Morse key or keying relay in a transmitter (0% chose this)
C.
at the antenna terminals of the TV receiver (0% chose this)
D.
between transmitter output and feed line (0% chose this)

8-05-11

A low pass filter suitable for a high frequency transmitter would:

A.
pass audio frequencies above 3 kHz (0% chose this)
B.
attenuate frequencies below 30 MHz (0% chose this)
C.
attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz (0% chose this)
D.
pass audio frequencies below 3 kHz (0% chose this)

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